SERIOUS
(G)
Actual Harm - a resident was hurt due to facility failures
Deficiency F0697
(Tag F0697)
A resident was harmed · This affected 1 resident
Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to provide pain management services consistent with professional standards of practice for one of five sampled residents (Resident 56) when Li...
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Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to provide pain management services consistent with professional standards of practice for one of five sampled residents (Resident 56) when Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 1 did not assess Resident 56's complaints of pain and report of redness, swelling and warmth to left hip area which started in the morning (8 a.m.) of 2/4/22. This failure resulted in Resident 56 experiencing pain and suffering and not being sent out to the hospital for evaluation until the night (11 p.m.) of 2/4/22.
Findings:
During a review of Resident 56's Change in Condition Evaluation (COCE), dated 2/4/22, the COCE indicated, . Date:2/4/2022 17:40 [5:40 p.m.] . Pain (uncontrolled) . Skin evaluation . Other 16a. Specify other: left leg swelling . Pain evaluation 17. Does the resident have pain? . Yes . Reported to primacy care clinician . 2/4/2022 . 1530 . Recommendation . X-ray .
During a review of Resident 56's Minimum Data Set (MDS - a resident assessment tool used to identify resident cognitive [pertaining to reasoning, memory and judgement] and physical functioning level) assessment, dated 1/13/22, the MDS assessment indicated Resident 56's Brief Interview for Mental Status (BIMS - screening tool used in nursing home to assess cognition) assessment score was 13 out of 15, (0-15 scale [0-6 severe cognitive deficit, 7-12 moderate cognitive deficit, 13-15 no cognitive deficit]) indicating no cognitive deficit. The MDS assessment Section G, dated 1/13/22, indicated, . A. Bed mobility - how resident moves to and from lying position, turns side to side, and positions body while in bed or alternate sleep furniture . 1. Self-Performance: . 3 [Extensive assistance (resident involved in activity staff provide weight-bearing support)] . 2. Support . 3 [Two+ persons physical assist] . B. Transfer - how resident moves between surfaces including to or from: bed, chair, wheelchair, standing position . 3 [Extensive assistance] . 3 [Two+ persons physical assist] . Functional Limitation in Range of Motion . Coding: 1. Impairment on one side . A. Upper extremity (shoulder, elbow, wrist, hand) . Mobility Devices . C. Wheelchair .
During a review of Resident 56's Core Analytics Lab [Laboratory] and Radiology, Patient Report, dated 2/4/2022, the report indicated, . Procedure . Hips, Bilat [Bilateral - both sides], W/ Pelvis . Findings: Pelvis and bilateral hips . active displaced fracture through the left femoral neck . IMPRESSION: Acute displaced fracture through the left femoral neck .
During an interview on 2/10/22, at 9:38 a.m., with Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) 1, CNA 1 stated, she was assigned to Resident 56 on 2/4/22 when Resident 56 complained of pain and discomfort on her left leg with movement. CNA 1 stated, Resident 56 was leaning on her side eating breakfast in bed. CNA 1 stated, Resident 56 complained of pain on her left leg when she (CNA 1) helped her (Resident 56) sit up straight in bed. CNA 1 stated, Resident 56 complained of pain and discomfort during her shift every time she (Resident 56) was moved and repositioned in bed. CNA 1 stated, she informed the LVN 1 when Resident 56 first complained of pain on the morning )7:30 a.m.) of 2/4/22.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/10/22, at 9:56 a.m., with Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 2, LVN 2 stated, she did not receive report about Resident 56's left leg pain from LVN 1 during change of shift (2:30 p.m. 2/4/22) report. LVN 2 stated, after the shift report, LVN 1 (am shift charge nurse) stated I forgot to tell you the Social Service Director (SSD) told me something about Resident 56's leg. LVN 2 stated, she went to check on Resident 56 after shift report. LVN 2 stated, . Her [Resident 56] legs were covered but I noticed the big bump over the left leg like a pillow. So, I uncovered her left leg and saw the left leg was twice the size, of the right leg . LVN 2 stated the left leg was swollen from the hip to the knee area. LVN 2 reviewed progress note dated 2/4/22, . Resident refused to work with physical therapy due to pain, writer [LVN 1] notified and went to assess resident, upon assessment resident left leg was swollen and resident complained of pain .
During an interview on 2/10/22, at 10:30 a.m., with SSD, SSD stated, PTA (Physical Therapist Assistant) went to see her to report Resident 56 yelling out in her room. SSD stated, she went and talked to Resident 56 in her room. SSD stated, . She [Resident 56] asked me to move her leg and straighten her foot . SSD stated, she uncovered Resident 56's leg and saw her left leg was swollen, turned outward and was warm to the touch. SSD stated, she notified the charge nurse (LVN 1) right away (at around 1:15 p.m.) and reported what she observed on Resident 56.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/10/22, at 11:10 a.m., with PTA, PTA reviewed Resident 56's Physical Therapy: Weekly TEN Details, dated 1/29/22 to 2/4/22, . Friday 2/4/2022 . Facilitated Pt [patient] in skilled interventions . Pt needed repositioning multiple times during Tx [treatment] activities secondary hip and knee pain at 6/10 with redness/warmth/swelling and RN [registered nurse] was notified. PTA stated, he went to see Resident 56 in her room before breakfast (7:45 a.m.) to set her up for therapy (on 2/4/22) and Resident 56 complained of discomfort. PTA stated, Resident 56's left leg was abducted (away from the right leg). PTA stated, when he started working on Resident 56 left leg, she complained of pain of 5 out of 10 (pain scale 0-10 and 10 is the highest) without him even touching the leg. PTA stated, Resident 56's pain increased to 6 out of 10 when her left leg was touched. PTA stated, he talked to the morning charge (LVN 1) nurse and asked if Resident 56 had a wound on her back side. PTA stated, . The charge nurse and I went to Resident 56 room and turned Resident 56 and when I grabbed her [Resident 56] left leg, it felt warm and with a little bit of redness . PTA stated, he compared the left leg with the right leg and the left leg was swollen, red and warm with complaints of discomfort with movement and touch. PTA stated, he told the charge nurse, . I think it is time to look into this because she had all the three indicators like pain, redness and swelling . PTA stated, the charge nurse said she was going to call the doctor.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/10/22, at 1:58 p.m., with LVN 1, she stated she was the charge nurse for Resident 56 on 2/4/22, morning shift. LVN 1 stated, Resident 56 was her usual self. LVN 1 stated, Resident 56 only wanted cup of coffee during breakfast. LVN 1 stated, she remembered PTA kept going back to Resident 56's room but was not aware of the reason. LVN 1 stated, she did not recall any report of Resident 56 complaints of pain of the left leg during her shift from any staff (CNA, PTA, SSD or Night shift Nurse). LVN 1 stated, she went to Resident 56's room at 2:30 p.m. to do treatment on Resident 56 wound and observed her left leg bigger in size than usual compared to the right leg. LVN 1 stated, she tried calling the primary doctor towards the end of her shift but there was no answer.
During an interview on 2/10/22, at 4:37 p.m., with CNA 2, CNA 2 stated, she worked on 2/4/22 (afternoon shift) and she took care of Resident 56. CNA 2 stated, she did not receive any report from the morning shift CNA or LVN 1 about Resident 56's complained of pain to her left leg. CNA 2 stated, between 9-9:30 p.m., the LVN 2 called her to assist in repositioning Resident 56 for the radiology technician to get an X-ray of resident's hip and leg. CNA 2 stated, as soon as Resident 56 was turned she noticed the left leg was swollen and was not straight. CNA 2 stated, Resident 56 complained of pain when turned and stated, ow, ow, ow repeatedly. CNA 2 stated, LVN 2 did not ask Resident 56 to rate the level of pain.
During an interview on 2/11/22, at 8:39 a.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), DON stated, there was no documentation indicating LVN 1 assessed the reported pain, redness and swelling of Resident 56's left leg. DON stated, she expected the nurses to address resident's pain and discomfort as soon as it was reported.
During a review of the facility's policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Pain Management Guideline, undated, the P&P indicated, . To provide guidance for consistent assessment, management and documentation of pain in order to provide maximum comfort and enhanced quality of life . recognizing and reporting pain . assessing pain . Intervening to treat pain before the pain becomes severe .
SERIOUS
(H)
Actual Harm - a resident was hurt due to facility failures
Medication Errors
(Tag F0758)
A resident was harmed · This affected multiple residents
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview and record review, the facility failed to follow their policies and procedures regarding the saf...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview and record review, the facility failed to follow their policies and procedures regarding the safe and appropriate prescribing and administering of antipsychotic (used to treat psychosis - conditions that affect the mind, where there had been some loss of contact with reality) medication for four of five residents (Residents 4, 21, 20 and 52) when antipsychotic medications were prescribed and administered prior to determining the appropriate indications for use. The facility did not develop and implement non-pharmacologic (without the use of medications) interventions prior to physicians prescribing the use of anti-psychotic medications. Mental health professionals (psychologists and/or psychiatric providers) were not consistently consulted to accurately diagnose resident mental health illnesses and prior to the use of anti-psychotics. The anti-psychotics, once administered, were not appropriately monitored for negative effects.
These failures resulted in the unnecessary use of olanzapine (used to treat mental disorders) for Resident 4 with the subsequent harm of experiencing difficulty swallowing, inability to take in adequate nutrition and a significant weight loss of 35 pounds in one month; and for Resident 21 the unnecessary use of quetiapine (used to treat schizophrenia [a condition that affects the persons ability to think, feel and behave clearly]), bipolar disorder (a condition associated with episodes of mood swings), and depression (condition associated with persistent loss of interest in activities, causing impairment in daily life) and the decrease of quality of life. All four residents had the potential to experience the serious negative effects (medication interactions, adverse reactions, dizziness [increasing risk for falls], drowsiness, high cholesterol, high blood sugar [increasing risk for diabetes - high sugar in the blood]), liver dysfunction, weight gain, constipation, heartburn, dry mouth, akathisia (a state of agitation, distress, and restlessness), weakness, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS, a life threatening reaction from use of antipsychotic drug), uncontrolled body movements, decreased blood pressure, seizures and difficulty swallowing, pseudo parkinsonism (a medical condition causing slowed movements, muscle stiffness, and a shuffling walk), and indigestion of anti-psychotics.
Findings:
1. During a review of Resident 4's admission Record (AR), dated 2/9/22, the AR indicated Resident 4 is a [AGE] year old female who was admitted from an acute care hospital on 7/22/21 to the facility, whose diagnoses included Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (group of lung diseases that block airflow and make it difficult to breath), Anxiety Disorder, Schizophrenia, Major Depressive Disorder (a mood disorder that causes a persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest), and Dementia (a condition characterized by impairment of at least two brain fictions, such as memory loss and judgement Other Diseases Classified Elsewhere with Behavioral Disturbance.
A review of Resident 4's Medical Record (MR), the MR indicated Resident 4 had an order for Olanzapine. A review of the prescriber's (physician) order, dated 1/23/22, indicated the Resident had an order for Olanzapine Tablet 20 MG (milligrams - a unit of measure) Give 1 tablet by mouth one time a day for Manifested by threatening behaviors to self and others related to SCHIZOPHRENIA, UNSPECIFIED .
During an observation, on 2/9/22 at 9:36 a.m., in Resident 4's room, Resident 4 was observed sleeping in her bed and did not awake when the door was knocked.
During an observation, on 2/9/22 at 2:14 p.m., in Resident 4's room, Resident 4 was observed sleeping in her bed and did not awake when the door was knocked.
During an observation, on 2/9/22 at 4:40 p.m., in Resident 4's room, Resident 4 was observed sleeping in her bed and did not awake when the door was knocked.
During an interview on 2/9/22 at 2:19 p.m., with LVN 2, LVN 2 stated Resident 4 was not always sleeping when she first admitted to the facility. Now, she mostly sleeps, and this has been going on for about a month, since the start of the Olanzapine.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 2/9/22 at 2:36 p.m., with Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 2, Resident 4's MR dated 2/9/22 was reviewed. LVN 2 stated there was no documentation on the MR that Resident 4 had a history or diagnosis of schizophrenia. LVN 2 stated having an inappropriate diagnosis or medications could affect Resident 4's health and mental status.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 2/9/22 at 2:49 p.m., with LVN 2, Resident 4's MR, dated 2/9/22 was reviewed. LVN 2 stated she never saw Resident 4 hurt others or herself. LVN 2 stated she did not observe Resident 4 exhibiting behaviors of delusion (a belief or altered reality that is persistently held despite evidence) or hallucinations ( a perception of having seen, heard, touched, tasted or smelled something that was not actually there). LVN 2 stated the MR indicated Resident 4's starting dose was Olanzapine 20 mg.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 3:20 p.m., with LVN 2, Resident 4's MR, dated 2/9/22 was reviewed. LVN 2 verified there was no documentation for non-pharmacological interventions or behavior monitoring prior to starting Olanzapine for Resident 4. LVN 2 stated medication was not best because of side effects especially at their [resident's] older age and better to start with non-pharmacological interventions.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 3:25 p.m., with the Infection Preventionist (IP), Resident 4's MR, dated 2/9/22 was reviewed. IP stated he previously worked as a charge nurse prior to his IP position and familiar with Resident 4's behaviors. IP stated the Medical Doctor (MD) was doing his rounds in the facility on 1/24/22 and he told the MD that there was no diagnosis for Olanzapine. IP stated after reading the manifested behaviors [threatening behaviors to self and others] from the MR, MD wrote a diagnosis of schizophrenia for Olanzapine 20 mg.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 4:14 p.m., with LVN 2, Resident 4's MR, dated 2/9/22 was reviewed. LVN 2 stated Resident 4 had a weight loss of 35 lbs (pounds, unit of measurement). LVN 2 stated Resident 4's weight on 2/4/22 was 155 lbs, previous weight on 1/5/22 was 190 lbs.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 4:16 p.m., with LVN 2, Resident 4's IDT[interdisciplinary Team] Weight Note (IWN), dated 2/3/22 was reviewed. The IWN indicated, . Resident has significant wt [weight] loss in 1 month . Resident's intake at 35-57% average last 17 meals, intake continues to be low . LVN 2 stated Resident 4's food intake on 2/9/22 for breakfast and lunch was 0-25%.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/10/22, at 10:47 a.m., with Speech Therapist (ST), Resident 4's MR, dated 2/10/22 was reviewed. ST stated on 2/1/22, an ST order was placed by the charge nurse that Resident 4 was having difficulty swallowing. ST acknowledged Resident 4 did not have a prior history of dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) or pneumonia. ST stated Resident 4 had a recent onset with difficult masticating (chewing) and pocketing (holding food inside the mouth without swallowing) and nursing reported decline in oral intake. ST stated, when I assessed her tongue and lips, she had little resistance meaning she had weakness in tongue and lips that made it difficult for her oral phase of swallowing which is chewing and pushing food front to back and keeping food in mouth . oral sensation issues, could not feel food in mouth. ST stated Resident 4 had received five treatments for dysphagia rehabilitation. ST stated choking can be a negative outcome, as well as malnutrition and weight loss and Resident 4's enjoyment of food could be affected.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/10/22, at 11:46 a.m., with (Registered Dietician) RD, Resident 4's MR, dated 2/10/22 was reviewed. RD stated Resident 4 had a weight loss of 35 lbs. RD stated Resident 4's weight on 2/4/22 was 155 lbs, previous weight on 1/5/22 was 190 lbs. RD acknowledged Resident 4 was placed on Olanzapine on 1/23/22, with weight changes as well as dysphagia as a side effect. RD stated the IDT on 2/3/22 recommended 2.0 (type or kind) house supplement at 120 milliliters (ml - measurement of liquid volume) TID (three times a day) with med [medication] pass and weekly weight monitoring because Resident 4 had significant weight loss in 1 month, intake was low, and needed more help [verbal cueing and meal tray set-up] at mealtimes.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/10/22, at 5:01 p.m., with LVN 9, Resident 4's Medication Administration Record (MAR), dated 2/10/22 was reviewed. The MAR indicated, . 1/1/22 - 1/31/22 . Olanzapine Table 20 MG Give 1 tablet by mouth one time a day for Manifested by threatening behaviors to self and others related to SCHIZOPHRENIA, UNSPECIFIED . Monitor Side Effects 1) Dystonia [involuntary muscle contractions that cause repetitive twisting movements]: torticollis (stiffness of neck); 2) Anti-cholinergic symptoms [such as] A. dry mouth, blurred vision, B. Constipation, urinary retention: 3) Hypotension [low blood pressure]; 4) Sedation/drowsiness; 5) Increased falls/dizziness; 6) Cardiac Abnormalities; 7) Anxiety/agitation; 9) Sweating/rashes; 10) Headache; 11) Urinary retention/hesitancy; 14) Psuedoparkinsonism-Cogwheel rigidity [stiffening of muscles and tremors] Bradykinesia [slow moment], Tremors; 15) Appetite change/weight change; 16) Insomnia; 17) Confusion; 29) None . Monitor every shift . Day . # [number of times per shift] . Eve (evening) . # . Night . # . [29 was coded 28 times] LVN stated the MAR for 2/1/22 to 2/10/22 indicated no appetite change or weight change. LVN stated the MAR was not accurate because Resident 4 had a weight loss of 35 lbs last month.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/10/22, at 5:07 p.m., with LVN 9, Resident 4's MR, dated 2/10/22 was reviewed. LVN 9 stated the IDT recommendation on 2/3/22 to weigh weekly was not ordered and implemented. LVN 9 stated, Nurse should have gotten the order from MD. Whenever there is a significant change in weight, we monitor the weight for 4 weeks.
A review of the facility's consultant psychologist notes for Resident 4 titled, Psychology Treatment Memorandum, dated 1/25/22, indicated, . Initial evaluation . Depression . start Lexapro [used to treat depression and generalized anxiety disorder] 10 mg qd [daily] . Moderate Dementia w/ [with] behaviors . start Aricept [used to treat confusion or dementia related to Alzheimer's, a progressive disease that destroys memory and other important mental functions] 5 mg qd after 1 month increased to 10 mg qd . Anxiety .
During a telephone interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 10:29 a.m. with Consultant Psychologist (PSY), Resident 4's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. PSY stated he did not diagnose Resident 4 with Schizophrenia and was not aware Resident 4 had been diagnosed with schizophrenia. PSY stated he was not aware Resident 4 had been initiated on Olanzapine. PSY stated he saw Resident 4 on 1/25/22 for follow-up assessment related to diagnoses of anxiety, depression, and moderate dementia with behaviors. PSY stated Olanzapine 20 mg was not an appropriate initial dose. PSY stated he would normally start at 2.5 mg twice a day then gradually increase as needed. PSY stated the facility should have a review process before starting an antipsychotic medication. PSY stated the facility should consult with the psychologist or a mental health profession prior to starting an antipsychotic medication regimen. PSY stated Olanzapine could cause lethargy and lack of responsiveness, issues where the resident could become lethargic and not be able to eat.
According to the manufacturer's package insert for Olanzapine adult dosing for Schizophrenia indicate, Initial: 5 mg once daily increasing to 10 mg once daily within several days or 10 mg once daily. Thereafter may increase dose based on response and tolerability in increments of 5 mg/day at intervals of 1 week up to 20 mg/day .
During a telephone interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 12:38 p.m., with Consultant Pharmacist (CP), Resident 4's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. CP stated Olanzapine 20 mg BID (two times a day) was not an appropriate initial dose. CP stated there was no documentation in Resident 4's medical records that indicated Resident 4 received non-pharmacological interventions prior to initiation of olanzapine. CP stated it was important to use non-pharmacological interventions because the interventions can reduce the need for antipsychotics and reduce associated side effects of the medications. CP stated Olanzapine could cause lethargy, dry mouth, swallowing difficulty and weight loss. CP stated nursing should monitor Resident 4 for pseudo-parkinsonism and other adverse side effects of Olanzapine.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 3:48 p.m., with Director of Nursing (DON), Resident 4's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. DON stated she does not know how Resident 4 got the schizophrenia diagnosis and could be based on what the nurses reported to the doctor. DON stated the facility should have a psychological evaluation to properly diagnose and determine if the behavior was psychological or dementia related. The DON stated non-pharmacological interventions and behavioral monitoring should be initiated prior to and during use of psychotropic medications. DON stated non-pharmacological interventions were necessary to make sure the facility tried other things [interventions] before initiating antipsychotics medication.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 4:34 p.m., with DON, Resident 4's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. DON stated the facility did not follow the IDT recommendation for Resident 4 to conduct weekly weight for four weeks. DON stated it was not normal for a resident to lose 35 lbs in a short amount of time. DON stated if resident cannot swallow, behaviors could be more intense because the resident (Resident 4) was not getting the nutritional balance and had been continuously taking all her medications.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/15/22 at 10:22 a.m., with the MD 2 and Administrator in Training (AIT), Resident 4's MR, dated 2/15/22 was reviewed. MD 2 stated Resident 4 diagnoses of schizophrenia came from the information he obtained from the nurses. MD 2 stated he prescribed a high dose of Olanzapine [20 mg daily] for Resident 4. MD 2 stated the initial dose should be 2.5 mg or 5 mg daily. MD 2 stated he agreed with the manufacturer specification to start Olanzapine at a lower dose. MD 2 stated that based on the DSM-5 (Diagnostic and Statical Manual of Mental Disorders, the standard used by mental health professionals in the United Stated to diagnose mental health disorder), the diagnosis of schizophrenia for Resident 4 was inappropriate, and should be changed or removed. MD stated there should be a clinical assessment for mental health diagnosis by a mental health professional, not just word of mouth from nurses.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/15/22 at 10:22 a.m., with the AIT, Resident 4's MR, dated 2/15/22 was reviewed. AIT stated he was unable to find a documentation of Resident 4 having hallucinations and stated that non-pharmacological interventions were not attempted for Resident 4 before starting Olanzapine.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/15/22 at 10:46 a.m., with the MD 2 and AIT, Resident 4's MR, dated 2/15/22 was reviewed. MD 2 stated non-pharmacological interventions should be attempted first before giving medications. MD 2 stated antipsychotic medication should be the last choice. MD 2 stated he was aware of the black box warning (the highest safety-related warning that medications can have assigned by the Food and Drug Administration) for Olanzapine. MD 2 stated patients with dementia-related psychosis treated with atypical anti-psychotic drugs are at an increased risk of death. MD 2 stated Resident 4's Olanzapine could cause sedation, resulting to swallowing difficulty. MD stated he would follow-up with the DON and titrate (slowly increase) the dose.
According to the manufacturer's package insert for Olanzapine, the Boxed Warning indicates, Elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis treated with antipsychotic drugs are at an increased risk of death . Although the causes of death were varied, most of the deaths appeared to be either cardiovascular (e.g., heart failure, sudden death) or infectious (e.g., pneumonia) in nature.
According to the manufacturer's package insert, significant adverse reactions for Olanzapine include, extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), also known as drug-induced movement disorders. Antipsychotics can cause 4 main EPS: Acute dystonia (repetitive body movements, drug-induced parkinsonism (a medical condition causing slowed movements, muscle stiffness, and a shuffling walk), akathisia (a state of agitation, distress, and restlessness), and tardive dyskinesia (a medical condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face). EPS presenting as dysphagia (difficulty in swallowing), esophageal dysmotility (a sensation that food is stuck in the throat or chest), or aspiration (accidental breathing in of food or fluid into the lungs) have also been reported with antipsychotics, which may not be recognized as EPS.
2. During a review of Resident 21's admission Record (AR), dated 2/8/22, the AR indicated Resident 21 was an [AGE] year old male who was admitted from an acute care hospital on 1/23/19 to the facility and readmitted to the facility on [DATE], whose diagnoses included unspecified dementia (a decline in memory or other thinking skills severe enough to reduce a person's ability to perform everyday activities) without behavioral disturbance, hyperlipidemia (high cholesterol), anxiety (a mental health illness characterized by a sudden feeling of panic and fear, restlessness, and uneasiness), muscle weakness, history of falling, and unspecified psychosis (a mental condition causing the person to experience false beliefs, seeing or hearing things that others do not see or hear) not due to a substance or known physiological (deals with the normal functions of the human body and parts) condition.
A review of Resident 21's Medical Record (MR), indicated Resident 21 had an order for quetiapine. A review of the prescriber's order, dated 6/18/20, indicated the Resident had an order for [Brand Name for Quetiapine] 50 mg (milligrams, unit of measurement) to be given twice a day for . UNSPECIFIED PSYCHOSIS NOT DUE TO SUBSTANCE OR KNOWN PHYSIOLOGICAL CONDITION m/b [manifested by] delusional statements where he believes others belongings are his and is causing his emotional distress which effects [affects] his quality of life.
A review of the medication order, dated 7/3/20, indicated Resident 21's quetiapine order was increased to 100 mg twice a day for . UNSPECIFIED PSYCHOSIS NOT DUE TO SUBSTANCE OR KNOWN PHYSIOLOGICAL CONDITION m/b delusional statements where he believes others belongings are his and is causing his emotional distress which effects his quality of life.
A review of the medication order, dated 9/23/20, indicated Resident 21's quetiapine order was increased to 200 mg twice a day for . UNSPECIFIED PSYCHOSIS NOT DUE TO SUBSTANCE OR KNOWN PHYSIOLOGICAL CONDITION m/b delusional statements where he is agitated and wanting to go home.
A review of the medication order, dated 12/14/21, indicated Resident 21's quetiapine order was increased to 200 mg three times a day for . UNSPECIFIED PSYCHOSIS NOT DUE TO SUBSTANCE OR KNOWN PHYSIOLOGICAL CONDITION.
During a concurrent interview and observation, on 2/9/22 at 9:35 a.m., with Resident 21, Resident 21 was seating on his wheelchair and looking out through the patio door. Resident 21 stated, I cannot even think, I am lost, I feel dead here, I want to go home.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 2/9/22 at 10:54 a.m., with Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 8 and Medical Record Director (MRD), Resident 21's Medical Record (MR), dated 2/9/22 was reviewed. LVN 8 stated there was no documentation on the MR that Resident 21 had a history of hallucinations, delusions, incoherent (unclear or confusing) thoughts related to psychosis prior to the diagnosis of psychosis on 2/21/19. LVN 8 stated having an incorrect diagnosis could result to wrong medication.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 11:27 a.m., with LVN 8, Resident 21's MR, dated 2/9/22 was reviewed. LVN 8 stated there was no documentation for non-pharmacological interventions attempted for Resident 21 before starting quetiapine. LVN 8 stated relating to the care of Resident 21, Before we jump into medications we have to see if they calm down, sometimes we don't need medications.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 12:21 p.m., with LVN 8, Resident 21's MR, dated 2/9/22 was reviewed. LVN 8 was unable to find documented evidence of monitoring for hemoglobin (red blood cell protein, hb [hemoglobin - a red protein responsible for transporting oxygen in the blood]) A1C (blood sugar measurement) for 2021 and no AIMS (Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale) baseline when Resident 21 was started on quetiapine. LVN 8 stated the most recent A1C was on 9/17/20. LVN 8 stated without the appropriate monitoring of blood sugar, Resident 21 could have medical complications. LVN 8 stated an abnormal involuntary movement is a side effect of quetiapine and should be monitored and reported immediately to the doctor if symptoms of abnormal movement occur. LVN 8 also stated she could not locate in the MR documented evidence of monitoring for pseudoparkinsonism (a medical condition characterized by slowed movements, muscle stiffness, and a shuffling walk), akathisia (a set of symptoms that include agitation, distress, and restlessness), and tardive dyskinesia (a medical condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face). LVN 8 stated, If abnormal movement was observed, will have to stop the medication and notify the doctor immediately.
Review of Resident 21's Medication Administration Record (MAR) dated 2/1/22-2/15/22, indicated . [Quetiapine Brand Name] Tablet 200 MG (Quetiapine Fumarate) Give 200 mg by mouth three times a day related to UNSPECIFIED PSYCHOSIS NOT DUE TO A SUBSTANCE OR KNOWN PHYSIOLOGICAL CONDITION . Monitor Side Effects 1) Dystonia: torticollis (stiffness of neck); 2) Anti-cholinergic (used to control involuntary muscle movements) symptoms? A. dry mouth, blurred vision, b. Constipation, urinary retention: 3) Hypotension; 4) Sedation/drowsiness; 7) Anxiety/agitation; 8) Blurred vision; 9) Sweating/rashes; 10) Headache; 11) Urinary retention/hesitancy; 12) Weakness; 13) Hangover effects; 28) Other [other side effects]; 29) None [no behavior] every shift . Hours . Day . # [number of times per shift] . Eve (evening) . # . Night . # . The order did not include monitoring for pseudoparkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.
According to the manufacturer's package insert, significant adverse reactions for quetiapine include, extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), also known as drug-induced movement disorders. Antipsychotics can cause 4 main EPS: Acute dystonia, drug-induced parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 2:05 p.m., with LVN 8, Resident 21's MAR, dated 2/9/22 was reviewed. LVN 8 stated Resident 21 had 27 episodes of psychosis from 9/1/21 to 9/30/21, 23 episodes of psychosis from 10/1/21 to 10/31/21, and 15 episodes of psychosis from 11/1/2021 to 11/30/2021. LVN 8 stated Resident 21's quetiapine order was increased to 200 mg three times a day on 12/14/21. LVN 8 stated Resident 21's behavior decreased over the 3-month period [September 2021 to November 2021] and the quetiapine was increased on [DATE]. LVN 8 stated it does not make sense to increase the medication [Quetiapine] when behavior had decreased.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 2:05 p.m., with LVN 8, Resident 21's Progress Notes (PN), dated 12/13/21 was reviewed. The PN indicated, . 12/13/21 at 2:47 p.m., Resident was very calm and quiet up in his chair with good tolerance, sleep and ate when meals came but otherwise very quiet . No behaviors . 12/14/21 at 2:01 p.m., Resident was awake this am eating breakfast this am and did well no c/o [complain of] any pain or discomfort. He was up this am [meaning morning] was quiet and calm no behaviors at this time . 12/14/21 at 3:26 p.m., Resident has been lethargic [lack of energy] most of the time, at time he is awake and eats but lethargic most of the time. He has behaviors only in the evening. [ medical director (MD)] was here today and he was notified about resident being more lethargic and sleepier. See new orders. He was notified [Consultant Psychologist (PSY)], had placed him on this med see new changes. [name of wife] wife called via phone and notified and agree with orders . LVN 8 stated it does not make sense to increase the medication [quetiapine] when behavior had decreased from the previous months. LVN 8 stated increasing the medications could increase the side effects including the risk for fall, injury, and lethargy.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 2:13 p.m., with LVN 2, Resident 21's MAR, dated 2/9/22 was reviewed. The MAR indicated, . 9/1/2021-9/30/2021 . Monitor for episodes of Psychosis manifested by believing others are trying to hurt him and he has been kidnapped. Every shift related to UNSPECIFIED PSYCHOSIS . Day . # [number of times per shift] . Eve (evening) . # . Night . # . [total 27] . 10/1/2021-10/31/2021 . Day . # [number of times per shift] . Eve (evening) . # . Night . # . [total 23] . 11/1/21-11/30/21 . Day . # [number of times per shift] . Eve (evening) . # . Night . # . [total 15] . LVN 2 stated Resident 21's behavior decreased over the 3-month period [September 2021 to November 2021] and the quetiapine was increased on [DATE]. LVN 2 stated it was not appropriate to increase the dose of quetiapine when behavior had decreased.
During a telephone interview and concurrent record review on 2/14/22 at 10:03 a.m., with PSY, Resident 21's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. PSY stated he was not aware Resident 21's behavior decreased over the 3-month period [September 2021 to November 2021]. PSY stated he relied on the lead nurse for the summary of behaviors [monthly monitoring of behaviors]. PSY stated he increased the dosing of Resident 21's Quetiapine based on the information he received from the nurse. PSY stated if the behavior was decreasing it does not warrant an increase in dose of quetiapine. PSY stated he was not aware of any attempted GDR [gradual dose reduction] with Quetiapine. PSY stated he was not aware that quetiapine was for short-term use [for psychosis].
According to the manufacturer's package insert for quetiapine, adult dosing for psychosis associated with dementia indicated, For short-term adjunctive [added second to another treatment] use while addressing underlying cause(s) if severe symptoms . Immediate release: Oral: Initial: 15 mg at bedtime; may increase dose gradually (e.g.[meaning for example], weekly) based on response and tolerability up to 75 mg twice daily .
During a telephone interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 11:39 a.m., with Consultant Pharmacist (CP), Resident 21's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. CP stated quetiapine was primarily used for managing schizophrenia (chronic and severe mental disorder that affects the way a person thinks, acts, expresses emotions, perceives reality, and relates to others) or adjunct to depression. The CP stated the unspecified psychosis was a vague diagnosis and does not match the indications for use. CP stated the Quetiapine order should have been clarified when it was first ordered by the attending physician. CP stated unspecified psychosis was not an FDA indication for quetiapine. CP stated there was no documentation in Resident 21's medical records that indicated Resident 21 received non-pharmacological (non-drug approach) interventions prior to initiation of quetiapine. CP stated it was important to reduce the necessity for use of antipsychotics because of their side effects. CP stated by using non-pharmacological interventions, this strategy could reduce the need for antipsychotic or eliminate its use even though that was rare.
According to the manufacturer's package insert for quetiapine, Elderly patients have an increased risk of adverse effects to antipsychotics. In light of this risk, and relative to their small beneficial effect in the treatment of dementia-related psychosis and behavioral disorders, patients should be evaluated for possible reversible causes before being started on an antipsychotic. Nonpharmacologic interventions should be tried before initiating an antipsychotic.
During a telephone interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 12:20 p.m., with CP, Resident 21's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. CP stated no AIMS test (monitoring tool used to measure involuntary movement) was done at baseline for Resident 21. CP stated he requested the two previous DONs (Director of Nursing) to conduct AIMS test in 9/2021 and 11/2021, and both were not done. CP stated baseline AIMS was important, serving as a benchmark for monitoring adverse side effects of antipsychotics. CP stated he requested a GDR for quetiapine in October 2021 and November 2021 because of no behaviors noted. CP stated the provider declined the GDR recommendation since no clinical justification was given. CP stated the GDR was important because resident behavior can be controlled in a lower dose or no drug at all and could reduce side effects of drugs, drug-drug interactions, and drug-disease interactions. CP acknowledged nursing did not monitor for symptoms of pseudoparkinsonism, akathisia and tardive dyskinesia as side effects of Quetiapine and stated nursing is expected to monitor those symptoms.
According to the manufacturer's package insert (specific information about the drug) for quetiapine, frequency of monitoring indicates, . monitoring parameter hbA1C . frequency of monitoring . annually . monitoring parameter tardive dyskinesia . at least annually or every 6 months if high risk.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 3:06 p.m., with the DON, Resident 21's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. DON stated she did not find any indication or any behaviors in Resident 21's MR that would support the diagnosis of psychosis. DON stated the quetiapine [200 mg three times a day] dose was inappropriate and did not know why the attending physician wrote the quetiapine order. DON stated no AIMS test was completed, no Hb A1C for 2021, behavior and side effects monitoring were inadequate. The DON stated nonpharmacological interventions were not attempted prior to initiating quetiapine. DON stated baseline AIMS was important to monitor for pseudoparkinson, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. DON stated nursing staff should monitor for side effects and ensure resident was free from adverse reaction. The DON stated non-pharmacological interventions and behavioral monitoring should be initiated prior to and during use of psychotropic medications. DON stated non-pharmacological interventions were necessary to make sure the facility tried other things [interventions] before initiating antipsychotics medication. DON stated she could not find GDR document and physician
CONCERN
(D)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0565
(Tag F0565)
Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident
Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure residents rights to participate in resident groups was supported when Resident Council Meetings (meeting with residents designed to ...
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Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure residents rights to participate in resident groups was supported when Resident Council Meetings (meeting with residents designed to give the opportunity to voice any concerns or grievances about the facility) were not held once a month for two out of four months (December 2021 and January 2022).
This failure had the potential for residents to not have an opportunity to voice their concerns and grievances to the facility that could lead to residents needs not being met.
Findings:
During an interview on 2/8/22, at 10:03 a.m., at a Resident Council Meeting with Residents (Residents 14, 32, 43, 67, 74), Resident 14 stated, a Resident Council Meeting had not been done during the month of December 2021. Resident 14 stated, there was no staff member that made rounds to residents' rooms to ask about concerns or grievances.
During a review of the facility's Resident Council Meeting Minutes for the months of October to December 2021 and January 2022, there were no meeting minutes for December 2021 and January 2022.
During an interview on 2/8/22, at 10:55 a.m., with the Recreational Service Director (RSD), RSD stated, she was new to the position and was not aware of resident council meetings for the months of December 2021 and January 2022 not being completed. RSD stated, it was important to have resident council meetings for all residents to provide them an opportunity to voice concerns and grievances for the facility to be able to address it.
During an interview on 2/9/22, at 12:09 p.m., with the Social Services Director (SSD), SSD stated, she was the former RSD. SSD stated, she was not able to facilitate resident council meetings for December 2021 and January 2022 due to her being out sick. SSD stated, she did not delegate the task to another staff member in her absence. SSD stated, the resident council meetings were important to ensure the residents' concerns were being addressed and followed up on. SSD stated, it was the RSD's responsibility to set up the resident council meetings.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Resident Council, dated April 2017, indicated, . 1. The purpose of the Resident Council is to provide a forum for: a. Residents, families and resident representatives to have input in the operation of the facility; b. Discussion of concerns and suggestions for improvement; c. Consensus building and communication between residents and facility staff; and d. Disseminating information and gathering feedback from interested residents . 4. Council meetings are scheduled monthly or more frequently if requested by residents. The date, time and location of the meetings are noted in the Activities calendar .
CONCERN
(D)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0676
(Tag F0676)
Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident
Based on observation, interview and record review, the facility failed to provide the necessary care and services based on the resident's needs and choices for activities of daily living (ADLs) for on...
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Based on observation, interview and record review, the facility failed to provide the necessary care and services based on the resident's needs and choices for activities of daily living (ADLs) for one of three sampled residents (Resident 45) when the facility did not assist Resident 45 to get out of bed daily.
This failure placed Resident 45 at risk for her abilities in ADL to diminish.
Findings:
During a review of Resident 45's Face sheet, (FS- a document containing resident profile information), undated, the FS indicated, Resident 45 was admitted to the facility with diagnoses which included morbid (severe) obesity and muscle weakness.
During a review of Resident 45's Minimum Data Set (MDS- a resident assessment tool used to identify resident cognitive and physical functional level) assessment, dated 11/26/21, the MDS indicated, Resident 45's Brief Interview for Mental Status (BIMS) assessment score of 15 (0-15 scale [0-6 severe cognitive deficit, 7-12 moderate cognitive deficit, 13-15 no cognitive deficit]) indicating Resident 15 was cognitively intact. Functional status assessment indicated Resident 45 required extensive assistance and two staff members physical assistance with bed mobility.
During a concurrent observation and interview on 2/8/22, at 8:52 a.m., with Resident 45, in Resident 45's room, Resident 45 was observed laying in bed. Resident 45 stated, she did not remember the last time she was taken out of bed. Resident 45 stated, she had been laying in bed for so long that she felt dizzy when she sat up in bed. Resident 45 stated, facility staff told her that they don't have a lift to take her out of bed and she felt aggravated that she was not getting out of bed.
During a review of Resident 45's Care Plan (CP), dated 6/12/18, the CP indicated . I have physical functioning deficit related to: Mobility impairment . Needing help with bed mobility, transfers . Transfer: support provided Two+ person physical assist .
During a review of Residents 45's Weights and Vitals Summary (WVS), dated 2/4/22, the WVS indicated Resident 45 weighed 354 Lbs.
During an interview on 2/8/22, at 1:32 p.m., with Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) 6, CNA 6 stated she had been working for the facility a couple years and was familiar with Residents 45's care. CNA 6 stated, Resident 45 had not been out of bed for months and that there was no available bariatric (relating to or specializing in the treatment of obesity) chair for her to transfer into.
During an interview on 2/9/22, at 9:31 a.m., with CNA 7, CNA 7 stated Resident 45 had been out of bed a few years ago and that she had dizziness when she was taken out of bed. CNA 7 stated, Resident 45 use to have a Adriatic wheelchair but was unaware of what happened to it. CNA 7 stated, she would have to speak to the physical therapy department to place an order for a wheelchair specific for Resident 45's needs.
During a concurrent observation and interview on 2/9/22, at 3:55 p.m., with Director of Rehab (DOR), in B hall, a wheelchair was stored in a closet with multiple wheelchair footrests stored on the wheelchair seat. DOR stated, the facility wheelchair was a bariatric wheelchair used for residents who were not on their case load. DOR stated, the wheelchair would typically hold up 300 to 320 lb. DOR stated, she was not sure if 354 lb will fit and that she would need to measure and order a wheelchair specific to the resident needs.
During an interview on 2/9/22, at 3:55 p.m., with Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 4, LVN 4 stated, she was not aware of the reason why Resident 45 was not assisted out of bed daily. LVN 4 stated, it was important to assist Resident 45 to get out of bed daily to promote good circulation and prevent bed sores. LVN 4, stated if dizziness was an issue when Resident 45 gets out of bed there should have been an assessment to identify the cause of the dizziness and call Medical Doctor (MD) for advice. LVN 4 stated, there was no assessment to address the dizziness when getting out of bed.
During an interview on 2/9/22, at 4:48 p.m., with Resident 45, Resident 45 stated, she would like to get out of bed and that staff have not addressed her dizziness when sitting up in bed.
During an interview on 2/9/22, at 4:32 p.m., with CNA 8, CNA 8 stated, Resident 45 never gets out of bed, and that in the past she had complained of dizziness. CNA 8 stated, Resident 45 was a social resident and would be beneficial for her to get up in a wheelchair.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/10/22, at 10:26 a.m., with Registered Nurse (RN) 2, Resident 45's ADLS Transfers dated 12/21 and 1/22 was reviewed. The ADLS Transfers indicated 8 .ADL activity itself did not occur . RN 2 stated, the ADL were coded and 8 which meant that Resident 45 was not transferred. RN 2 stated, Resident 45 was confined to her bed and required a lift with two person assist to transfer her out of bed. RN 2 stated, the importance of getting Resident 45 up was to prevent complications and provides the ability to socialize which was good for her mental health.
During an interview on 2/14/22, at 11:22 a.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), the DON stated, Licensed Nurses should have educated and documented attempts of getting Resident 45 out of bed. The DON stated, the importance of getting Resident 45 out of bed was to prevent health complications that can develop from immobility.
During a review of the facility policy titled Quality of Life -Accommodation of Needs, dated 8/2009 was reviewed. The policy indicated, . The resident's individual needs and preferences shall be accommodated to the extent possible . The resident's individual needs and preferences, including the need for adaptive devices and modifications to the physical environment, shall be evaluated upon admission and reviewed on an ongoing basis . Examples of such adaptations may include: a. Providing access to assistive devices . Providing a variety of types (for example, chairs with and without arms) sizes (height and depth) .
CONCERN
(D)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0698
(Tag F0698)
Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident
Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure dialysis (treatment for people whose kidneys are failing) assessment was completed for one of five sampled resident (Resident 185), ...
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Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure dialysis (treatment for people whose kidneys are failing) assessment was completed for one of five sampled resident (Resident 185), when the facility did not perform a post dialysis assessment (contains vital signs and assessment of access site of dialysis catheter [used for connecting to a machine that filters blood during treatment]) on 2/4/22.
This failure placed Resident 185 at a potential risk of dialysis complications (low blood pressure, fluid overload, blood clots, muscle cramps, access site infection, itchy skin) to go unnoticed which could lead to harm or death.
Findings:
During a review of Resident 185's admission Record (AR- a document that provides resident contact details, a brief medical history, level of functioning, preferences, and wishes), dated 2/9/22, the AR indicated, . admission Date 2/2/22 . Diagnosis Information . End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD - medical condition in which a person's kidneys stop functioning on a permanent basis and needing long-term dialysis) .
During a review of Resident 185's Order Summary Report (OS), dated 2/9/22, the OS indicated, Hemodialysis: (dialysis treatment that uses blood stream to filter out wastes in the body) Monday, Wednesday, Friday .
During a review of Resident 185's Care Plan (CP), dated 2/2/22, the CP indicated, . Alteration in Kidney Function r/t (related to) ESRD. Resident on hemodialysis 3x/week (three times) . Observe for post-dialysis hang over (low blood volume that causes severe thirst, weakness, and symptoms similar to those following the heavy use of alcohol)-vital signs, mental status, excessive weight gain between treatments, nausea, vomiting, weakness, headache, severe leg cramps .
During a review of Resident 185's Dialysis/Observation Communication Form, dated 2/4/22, the form indicated, In-Facility (Skilled Nursing Facility) Post Dialysis Form .[all entries black] .
During an interview on 2/9/22, at 8:20 a.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), the DON stated, her expectation was for the licensed nurse (LN) to do a post dialysis assessment on Resident 185 when he was to return to the facility. DON stated, the post dialysis form should be completed by the LN with all the vital signs and pertinent information. DON stated, it was important to complete a post dialysis assessment on dialysis residents to ensure they were stable after dialysis treatments. DON stated, Resident 185 could have changes in his condition after dialysis, and if the nurse did not do an assessment on him they could bypass Resident 185's complications post dialysis.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Dialysis Guideline, dated 4/4/16, indicated, . The following information will provide addition direction in assessment, planning and provision of care to our residents requiring hemodialysis . Post Dialysis Protocol: Review transfer forms .Observe for unusual symptoms as lethargy, chest pain, headache, unsteady gait or nausea .
CONCERN
(D)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0757
(Tag F0757)
Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure residents were free from unnecessary medications in their tr...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure residents were free from unnecessary medications in their treatment plan for one of 10 sampled residents (Resident 22) when Resident 22 had no appropriate indication and monitoring for the use of magnesium oxide (medication supplement to maintain adequate magnesium in the body).
This failure placed Resident 22's at risk of being administered magnesium oxide unnecessarily which could potentially lead to elevated blood magnesium level.
Findings:
During a review of Resident 22's admission Record (AR), dated 2/7/22, the AR indicated Resident 22 was a [AGE] year old female who was admitted from an acute care hospital on 4/9/18 to the facility with diagnoses which included deficiency of other vitamins.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/7/222, at 2:27 p.m., with LVN 2, Resident 22's Physician Order (PO), dated 5/25/21 was reviewed. The PO indicated, Magnesium Oxide Tablet 400 MG [milligrams - unit of measure] Give 1 tablet by mouth one time a day related to DEFICIENCY OF OTHER VITAMINS . LVN 2 stated, she does not know the indication for use of Magnesium Oxide. LVN stated, Too much of anything could be harmful, too much of magnesium could be harmful to Resident 22.
During a concurrent phone interview and record review on 2/14/22, at 1:30 p.m., with Consultant Pharmacist (CP), Resident 22's Medical Record (MR), dated 2/14/21 was reviewed. CP stated, the Magnesium Oxide order requires a clarification from the physician. CP stated, the Magnesium Oxide was not an appropriate indication for Resident 22. CP stated, if Magnesium Oxide was not necessary, it could reduce the number of medications that resident (Resident 22) has to take. CP stated, there was no order to check for Resident 22's magnesium blood level. CP stated, Resident 22's Magnesium blood level should be monitored routinely to prevent elevated Magnesium level. CP stated, elevated Magnesium level could have an adverse effect to Resident 22.
During an interview on 2/14/22, at 5:20 p.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), DON stated, nursing staff should clarify Resident 22's Magnesium Oxide medication order and the need to check for magnesium blood level routinely. DON stated, Resident 22's magnesium level could go up and could potentially affect Resident 22's well-being.
During a review of a professional reference review Lexicomp, the manufacturer's instructions for Magnesium Oxide indicated, . magnesium supplement . relief of acid indigestion and upset stomach . Elderly patients may be at a greater risk of toxicity secondary to hypermagnesemia [elevated magnesium] due to decreased renal function .
During a review of the facility's policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Standing Orders for Routine Medication Therapy Monitoring, undated, the P&P indicated, . The facility establishes monitoring standards for certain medications to promote safe and effective use of the medications .
CONCERN
(D)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Infection Control
(Tag F0880)
Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to maintain an effective infection control program when:...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to maintain an effective infection control program when:
1. Resident 34 was not restricted to staying within the yellow zone (an area designated for suspected COVID-19 [Corona Virus- a contagious serious respiratory infection transmitted from person to person] positive residents). Resident 34 was observed seated at the facility main entrance next to Resident 36 in a green zone (residents without exposure, confirmed negative or recovered COVID 19).
These failures had the potential to place residents at increased risk for transmission of COVID-19.
Findings:
1. During a concurrent observation and interview on 2/11/22, at 11:38 a.m., with Receptionist (REC), at the facility's main entrance, Resident 34 and 36 were seated next to each other at the front entrance. REC stated, Resident 34 and 36 were seated next to each other and were not maintaining a 6 foot distance. REC stated, she educated Resident 34 to maintain 6 feet distance.
During a concurrent observation and interview on 2/11/22, at 11:47 a.m., with Infection Preventionist (IP), at the facility's main entrance, Residents 34 and 36 continued to sit next to each other at the front entrance. IP validated Resident 34 and 36 were seated next to each other and were not maintaining a 6 feet distance. IP stated, residents from the yellow zone who are under investigation should not be seated next to residents in the green zone. IP stated, we educate the residents on the risks when exposed to COVID. IP stated, there was a potential to spread COVID-19 virus when Resident 34 and 36 were seated next to each other not maintaining 6 feet distance. IP stated, it was residents right to sit where they want and they could not force residents to remain in their assigned zones but could only provide education.
During an observation on 2/11/22, at 11:53 a.m., in the C hall of the facility, Resident 36's room was located in the green zone.
During an observation on 2/11/22, at 11:54 a.m., in the D hall of the facility, Resident 34's room was located in the yellow zone.
During a review of Resident 34's Minimum Data Set (MDS- a resident assessment tool used to identify cognitive (mental processes) and physical functional level assessment dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 34's Brief Interview for Mental Status (BIMS - screening tool used to assess resident cognitive level) score was 03 out of 15 (0-7 indicated severe cognitive impairment - [memory loss, poor decision making-skills] 8-12 moderate cognitive impairment, (13-15) cognitively intact).
During an interview on 2/14/22, at 9:30 a.m., with IP, IP stated, Resident 34 and 36 both had severe cognitive impairment. IP stated, all we can do is keep reeducating for Resident 34 and 36 to maintain 6 feet distance, wear a mask and to remain in their assigned zone.
During a review of Resident 36's MDS assessment, dated 11/25/21, the MDS indicated, the BIMS score was 3 out of 15, indicating severe cognitive impairment.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/14/22, at 3:49 p.m., with IP, the facility Mitigation Plan revised on 7/27/21 was reviewed. The Mitigation plan indicated, This Document is . COVID-19 Mitigation Plan and stated our understanding of how we will prepare for, manage and conduct actions under the declared pandemic. It will be reviewed and updated as necessary . Residents in yellow zone will be restricted to the yellow zone until they have been cleared to enter the green zone . IP stated, yellow zone residents should be restricted to their zone until they care cleared to enter the green zone. IP was asked if the Mitigation plan was updated to include interventions on non-complaint or severely impaired residents to remain in their assigned zones, IP did not give a response. IP stated, he had not reached out to the county health department for guidance regarding residents who are not compliant with COVID precautions and residents who do not have the mental capacity to understand education.
During an interview on 2/14/22, at 11:22 a.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), DON stated, the Mitigation plan has not been updated to include interventions that will be in place for residents who don't have the mental capacity to understand education. DON stated, the facility has not reached out to the County Health Department for recommendations on residents who are not compliant and those who do not have the mental capacity to understand education.
CONCERN
(E)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0578
(Tag F0578)
Could have caused harm · This affected multiple residents
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure resident rights to formulate an advance directive (legal doc...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure resident rights to formulate an advance directive (legal document that allow one to spell out the decisions about end-of-life care ahead of time) was supported for seven of 19 sampled residents (Residents 6, 13, 44, 54, 61 and 183) when there were no POLST (Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment) form in the residents' clinical records.
This failures placed Residents 6, 13, 44, 54, 61 and 183 at a potential risk for not having their wishes for end of life care upheld.
Findings:
During a review of Resident 183's clinical record, the admission Record (AR - a document that provides resident contact details, a brief medical history, level of functioning, preferences, and wishes), dated [DATE], the AR indicated, . admission Date [DATE] . Resident 183 did not have an advanced directive on file.
During a review of Resident 44's clinical record, the AR, dated [DATE], the AR indicated, . admission Date [DATE] . Resident 44 did not have an advanced directive on file.
During a review of Resident 54's clinical record, the AR, dated [DATE], the AR indicated, . admission Date [DATE] . Resident 54 did not have an advanced directive on file.
During a review of Resident 6's clinical record, the AR, dated [DATE], the AR indicated, . admission Date [DATE] . Resident 6 did not have an advanced directive on file.
During a review of Resident 13's clinical record, the AR, dated [DATE], the AR indicated, . admission Date [DATE] . Resident 13 did not have an advanced directive on file.
During a review of Resident 61's clinical record, the AR, dated [DATE], the AR indicated, . admission Date [DATE] . Resident 61 did not have an advanced directive on file.
During current interview and record review on [DATE], at 10:07 a.m., with Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 7, LVN 7 reviewed clinical records for Residents 6, 13 and 61. LVN 7 stated, there were no advanced directive in the residents' chart or electronic health record. LVN 7 stated, if the resident was to stop breathing she would need to call Physician to inquire about code status. LVN 7 stated, it would take time away needed to start cardio-pulmonary resuscitation (CPR -an emergency life saving procedure done when a person's heartbeat or breathing has stopped), if needed possibly resulting in death.
During current observation and record review on [DATE], at 11:37 a.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), DON reviewed clinical records for Residents 6, 13 and 61. DON stated, there were no advance directives in Residents 6, 13 and 61's clinical records.
During an interview on [DATE], at 11:39 a.m., with Registered Nurse (RN) 1, RN 1 stated, Resident 183 did not have an advance directive in his chart due to Resident 183 wanting to have a family member go over the POLST form with him. RN 1 stated, Resident 183 did not get the chance to review the POLST form with his family. RN 1 stated, it was important to have an advance directive in the resident's clinical record to indicate what measures the staff needed to do in case of an emergency.
During a review of Resident 183's Order Summary Report (OS), dated [DATE], the OS indicated, there was no order for code status (type of emergent treatment a person would or would not receive if their heart or breathing were to stop). DON stated she did not see any notes nor orders indicating Resident 183's code status.
During a concurrent interview and record review on [DATE], at 10:11 a.m., with Medical Record Director (MRD), MRD reviewed clinical records for Resident 44 and Resident 54. MRD stated, Resident 44 and Resident 54 did not have POLST form in their clinical records. MRD stated, she audited the charts including the new admissions to ensure resident records were complete. MRD stated, the admission nurse was responsible in making sure the resident signed a POLST form or family was contacted if resident was not able to sign. MR stated, the expectation was for each Resident's chart to have a copy of a POLST or advanced directives.
During a concurrent interview and record review on [DATE], at 2:51 p.m., with DON, DON stated, the expectation was for advance directives to be completed for residents on admission in the form of a POLST form. DON stated, the admission coordinator or the admitting nurse was to complete the form with the Resident or Resident Representative. DON stated, Medical records was responsible for verifying the advance directive was in the residents' clinical record. DON stated, Resident 183's advance directive was not in his record due to the resident not completing it with his family. DON stated, the staff should have helped facilitate the completion of Resident 183's POLST form. DON stated, staff should have called the physician to have an order for a full code status (attempt resuscitation in an event when a person's heart stops) in the absence of a POLST form in the resident's clinical record.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Advance Directives, undated, indicated, . The resident has a right to exercise or refuse to execute an advance directive that stipulates how decisions regarding his/her medical care will be made . Steps for admission Upon admission, the social services staff or care center representatives ensure the residents choice is honored . Obtain a documented acknowledgment from resident/family/legal representative that advance directive information was given and discussed prior to or upon admission and will be maintained in the resident's file .
CONCERN
(E)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Comprehensive Care Plan
(Tag F0656)
Could have caused harm · This affected multiple residents
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** 2. During a review of Resident 4's admission Record (AR), dated 2/9/22, the AR indicated, Resident 4 was a [AGE] year old female...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** 2. During a review of Resident 4's admission Record (AR), dated 2/9/22, the AR indicated, Resident 4 was a [AGE] year old female who was admitted from an acute care hospital on 7/22/21 to the facility, whose diagnoses included Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (group of lung diseases that block airflow and made it difficult to breath), Anxiety Disorder, Schizophrenia, Major Depressive Disorder (a mood disorder that causes a persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest), and Dementia in Other Diseases Classified Elsewhere with Behavioral Disturbance.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 3:20 p.m., with LVN 2, Resident 4's Care Plan (CP), dated 2/9/22 was reviewed. LVN 2 stated, there was no care plan for non-pharmacological interventions and diagnoses of Anxiety and Depression manifested by repetitive confusion and exit seeking. LVN 2 stated, care plan should have been developed upon identification of behavior or diagnosis. LVN 2 stated, care plan was the basis of care for Resident 4.
During a review of Resident 4's Medication Administration Record (MAR), dated 2/10/22, the MAR indicated, . Monitor episodes of anxiety m/b [manifested by] repetitive confusion and exit seeking Q [every] shift . Order Date 2/3/22 .
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/10/22, at 4:58 p.m., with LVN 9, Resident 4's CP, dated 2/10/22 was reviewed. The CP indicated, . Focus . I have Dx [Diagnosis] of Schizophrenia manifested by threatening behaviors to self and others . Goal . I will calm down with staff intervention . My behavior will stop with staff intervention . Interventions . Help me maintain my favorite place to sit . Make sure I am not in pain or uncomfortable . LVN 9 stated, there were no measurable goals or timeline for Schizophrenia care plan. LVN 9 stated, care plan was important because it set the goals and interventions for Resident 4. LVN 9 stated, without measurable goals or timeline, Resident 4 could be on a medication without the need for it.
During an interview on 2/14/22 at 4:20 p.m., with the DON, DON stated, Resident 4 should have a resident-centered care plan to address the identified behavior or diagnosis and have a measurable goal or timeline. DON stated, the care plan tells the staff how to take care of the resident. DON stated, without the care plan, staff would not know how to care of the resident.
3. During a review of Resident 20's AR, dated 2/10/22, the AR indicated, Resident 20 was a [AGE] year old female who was admitted from an acute care hospital on 6/5/15 to the facility, whose diagnoses included Major Depressive Disorder, Anxiety Disorder, Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCD, a personality disorder characterized by excessive orderliness, perfectionism, attention to details, and a need for control in relating to others) and Vascular Dementia without Behavioral Disturbance.
During a review of Resident 20's AR, dated 2/10/22, the AR indicated, the diagnosis Schizophrenia was entered in Resident 20's medical record on 4/15/21.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/10/22, at 3:09 p.m., with LVN 9, Resident 20's CP, dated 2/10/22 was reviewed. LVN 9 stated, there was no care plan for non-pharmacological interventions prior to and upon initiation of Antipsychotic medication for Resident 20. LVN 9 stated, care plan should have been developed upon identification of behavior or diagnosis. LVN 9 stated, non-pharmacological interventions might be sufficient enough to manage the behavior and resident might not need an Antipsychotic medication.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/11/22, at 2:43 p.m., with LVN 8, Resident 20's CP, dated 2/11/22 was reviewed. The CP indicated, . Focus . I have Dx of Schizophrenia manifested by continuously yelling out . Goal . I will calm down with staff intervention . My behavior will stop with staff intervention . Interventions . Help me maintain my favorite place to sit . Make sure I am not in pain or uncomfortable . LVN 8 stated, there were no measurable goals or timeline for Schizophrenia care plan. LVN 8 stated, there was no care plan for non-pharmacological interventions and Olanzapine medication. LVN 8 stated, non-pharmacological interventions might be effective in managing behavior, thus reducing the need for an Antipsychotic medication. LVN 8 stated, the care plan guides the nursing staff to monitor for medication effectiveness and side effects.
During an interview on 2/14/22 at 4:42 p.m., with the DON, DON stated, Resident 20 should have a resident-centered care plan to address the identified behavior or diagnosis and have a measurable goal or timeline. DON stated, the care plan tells the staff on how to take care of the resident. DON stated, without the care plan, staff will not know how to care for the resident.
4. During a review of Resident 60's AR, dated 2/10/22, the AR indicated Resident 60 was a [AGE] year old male who was admitted from an acute care hospital on 6/23/21 to the facility, whose diagnoses included Chronic Kidney Disease (decreased kidney function that worsens over time), Human Immunodeficiency Virus Disease (HIV, a life threatening infection, transmitted through direct contact with HIV-infected body fluids, blood), and Encephalopathy (disease that affects the brain due to lack of oxygen).
A review of Resident 60's hospital discharge records, dated 6/23/21, indicated, a physician order for Aripiprazole 15 mg po (by mouth) daily and a diagnosis of Acute Psychosis (condition that causes one to lose touch with reality due to a mental illness or medical condition).
A review of Resident 60's MR, indicated that upon admission to the facility, Resident 60 was initiated on Aripiprazole. A review of the prescriber's (physician's) order, dated 6/23/21, indicated Resident 60 had an order for Aripiprazole Tablet 15 MG [milligrams - unit of measure] to be given at bedtime, . for psychosis manifested by striking out and cursing at staff related to UNSPECIFIED PSYCHOSIS NOT DUE TO SUBSTANCE OR KNOWN PHYSIOLOGICAL CONDITION .
A review of Resident 60's medication order, dated 1/6/22, indicated, Aripiprazole indication and dose was changed, . Aripiprazole Tablet 10 MG Give 1 tablet by mouth at bedtime for manifested by sticking [striking] out and cursing at staff related to SCHIZOPHRENIA, UNSPECIFIED .
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/11/22, at 2:10 p.m., with LVN 8, Resident 60's CP, dated 2/11/22 was reviewed. LVN 8 stated, there was no care plan for non-pharmacological interventions for Resident 60. LVN 8 stated, care plan should have been developed upon identification of behavior or diagnosis. LVN 8 stated, non-pharmacological interventions might be effective in managing behavior, thus reducing the need for an Antipsychotic medication.
During an interview on 2/14/22 at 4:44 p.m., with the DON, DON stated, Resident 60 should have a resident-centered care plan to address the identified behavior or diagnosis and have a measurable goal or timeline. DON stated, the care plan tells the staff how to take care of the resident. DON stated, without the care plan, staff will not know how to care for the resident.
During a review of facility's P&P titled, Care Planning Process, undated, the P&P indicated, . The comprehensive care plan will be developed by the interdisciplinary team that includes the attending physician, a member of the nutritional services, an RN [Registered Nurse] and a CNA [Certified Nursing Assistant] with responsibility for the patient/resident . The care plan will be person centered and incorporate the patient/resident's goals of care and treatment .
During a review of the facility's P&P titled, Care Planning Process, undated was reviewed. The policy indicated, . Upon admission to the center, a baseline care plan will be developed within 48 hours . The comprehensive care plan will be developed by the interdisciplinary team .
Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to develop and implement a person-centered comprehensive care plan for 12 of 24 sampled residents (Residents 185, 183, 184, 182, 5, 44, 54, 58, 29, 4, 20, 60) when:
1. There were no care plans for recreational activities for Residents 185, 183, 184, 182, 5, 44, 54, 58, 29. This failure resulted in Residents 185, 183, 184, 182, 5, 44, 54, 58, 29 not meeting their activity preferences and psychosocial needs.
2. There were no care plans for diagnoses of Anxiety (a mental health illness characterized by a sudden feeling of panic and fear, restlessness, and uneasiness) and Depressions (a persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest); no non-pharmacological interventions care plan; and no measurable goals or timeline for schizophrenia (chronic and severe mental disorder that affects the way a person thinks, acts, expresses emotions, perceives reality, and relates to others) care plan for Resident 4.
3. There was no care plan for Olanzapine (antipsychotic [used to treat mental health illness such as schizophrenia] medication); no non-pharmacological interventions care plan; and no measurable goals or timeline for Schizophrenia care plan for Resident 20.
4. There was no non-pharmacological interventions care plan for Resident 60.
These failures resulted in unnecessary medication use for Residents 4, 20 and 60 and had the potential for medication interactions, adverse reactions, and unidentified risks associated with the use of psychotropic medications that include but is not limited to drowsiness, irregular heart rate, sudden drop in blood pressure, increased blood sugar, weight gain, weight loss, problem walking, fever, muscle aches and pain.
Findings:
1. During an interview on 2/9/22, at 9:29 a.m., with Resident 185, Resident 185 stated no staff member had spoken to him about recreational activities in the facility. Resident 185 stated the RSD had not spoken to him about any preferences of activities. Resident 185 stated he would like to engage in some form of activities.
During a review of Resident 185's clinical record, the admission Record (AR- a document that provides resident contact details, a brief medical history, level of functioning, preferences, and wishes), dated 2/9/22, indicated, admission Date 2/2/22 . The Minimum Data Set (MDS-comprehensive, standardized assessment of residents' functional capabilities and health needs), dated 2/6/22, indicated, . BIMS (Brief Interview for Mental Status) Summary Score . 12 [indicating moderate cognitive deficit] .
During an interview on 2/9/22, at 9:32 a.m., with Resident 183, Resident 183 stated since his admission to the facility, no staff member had asked him about activities or preferences of activities. Resident 183 stated all he would do was watch television in his room.
During a review of Resident 183's clinical record, the AR, dated 2/9/22, indicated, admission Date 2/1/22 . The MDS, dated [DATE], indicated, . BIMS Summary Score . 15 [indicating no cognitive deficit] .
During an interview on 2/9/22, at 9:40 a.m., with Resident 184, Resident 184 stated the RSD had spoken to her the same day about activities. Resident 184 stated it was the first time anyone had spoken to her about activities since she had been admitted .
During a review of Resident 184's clinical record, the AR, dated 2/9/22, indicated, admission Date 2/1/22 . The MDS, dated [DATE], indicated, . BIMS Summary Score . 15 .
During a review of Resident 182's clinical record, the AR, dated 2/9/22, indicated, Original admission Date 5/30/20 . The MDS, dated [DATE], indicated, . BIMS Summary Score . 00 [indicating severe cognitive deficit] .
During an interview on 2/9/22, at 10:40 a.m., with the Activity Assistant (AA), the AA stated she started as the activity assistant on 2/7/22. AA stated she did not do care plans for activities and had no reference on residents' activity preferences. The AA stated she did not know the activity plan for the green zone.
During a review of Resident 5's clinical record, the AR, dated 2/9/22, indicated, admission Date 5/4/21 . The MDS, dated [DATE], indicated, Resident 5 had long and short-term memory impairment; inability to recall: season, room location, names and faces of staff, and current location in a nursing home; and severely impaired cognitive skills for daily decision-making.
During a review of Resident 44's clinical record, the AR, dated 2/9/22, indicated, admission Date 12/19/21 . The MDS, dated [DATE], indicated, . BIMS Summary Score . 10 [indicating moderate cognitive deficit] .
During a review of Resident 54's clinical record, the AR, dated 2/9/22, indicated, admission Date 9/11/21 . The MDS, dated [DATE], indicated, . BIMS Summary Score . 7 [indicating moderate cognitive deficit] .
During a review of Resident 58's clinical record, the AR, dated 2/9/22, indicated, admission Date 9/27/21 . The MDS, dated [DATE], indicated, . BIMS Summary Score . 14 [indicating no cognitive deficit] .
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 11:10 a.m., with the Recreational Service Director (RSD), RSD reviewed Residents' 5, 44, 54 and 58 Care Plans. RSD stated Residents 5, 44, 54 and 58 did not have activities care plans.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 11:39 a.m., with the RSD, Residents' 184, 183, 182 and 185 care plans were reviewed. RSD stated there was no care plan for recreational activities for Residents 184, 183, 182 and 185. RSD stated care plans should have been completed within five days of admission.
During a review of Resident 29's clinical record, the AR, dated 2/9/22, indicated, admission Date 3/12/22 . The MDS, dated [DATE], indicated, . BIMS Summary Score . 14 .
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 12:10 p.m., with the Social Service Director (SSD), Resident 29's care plan was reviewed. SSD stated Resident 29 did not have a care plan for activities.
During an interview on 2/10/22, at 1:34 p.m., with Resident 29, Resident 29 stated, the activity that he enjoyed was working out. Resident 29 stated, he has not had an activity since admission to the facility.
During a review of facility record titled: Job Description, dated 5/31/12, indicated, . Activity Director . Essential Job duties: Interview and assess all residents prior to the initial Care Plan Conference; document this information in the medical record, develop an individual recreational plan on the assessment and participate in Interdisciplinary Care Plan meetings. Update assessments and plans as needed and required by state or federal regulations .
During a review of the facility policy and procedure titles Quality of Life-Self Determination and Participation dated 12/2013 was reviewed. The policy indicated, . Our facility respects and promotes the right of each resident to exercise his or her autonomy regarding what the resident considers to be important facets of his or her life . In order to facilitate resident choices, staff shall . Gather information about the resident's personal preferences on initial assessment and periodically thereafter, and document these preferences in the medical record; c. Include information gathered about the resident's preferences in the care planning process . Residents shall be provided assistance as needed to engage in their preferred activities on a routine basis . If the resident enjoys regular exercise, he or she will be assisted in attending exercise classes .
CONCERN
(E)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0657
(Tag F0657)
Could have caused harm · This affected multiple residents
Based on observation, interview and record review, the facility failed to revise and implement a person-centered comprehensive care plan for three of 10 sampled residents (Resident 14, 20, 45) when ac...
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Based on observation, interview and record review, the facility failed to revise and implement a person-centered comprehensive care plan for three of 10 sampled residents (Resident 14, 20, 45) when activity care plans were not updated to reflect the residents current goals and preferences.
This failure had the potential for residents activity needs to go unmet.
Findings:
During an observation on 2/7/22, at 11:30 a.m., Resident 20 was observed laying in bed with eyes open. Resident 20 was unable to answer questions.
During a review of Resident 20's Minimum Data Set (MDS - a resident assessment tool used to identify resident cognitive [pertaining to reasoning, memory, and judgement] and physical functioning level) assessment dated 12/4/21, indicated, Resident 20's Brief Interview for Mental Status (BIMS-screening tool used in the nursing home to assess cognition) assessment score was four out of 15, (0-15 scale [0-6 severe cognitive deficit, 7-12 moderate cognitive deficit, 13-15 no cognitive deficit]) indicating Resident 20 had severe cognitive deficit.
During an interview on 2/8/22, at 1:21 p.m., with Resident 14, Resident 14 stated, he enjoyed activities such as playing bingo and painting.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 11:14 a.m., with the Recreational Services Director (RSD), RSD reviewed Resident 20's clinical record. Resident 20's Care Plan, date initiated 6/2/16, indicated, . I sometimes have difficulty starting and staying involved in recreational activities as evidenced by short attention span . revision date: 6/11/21, Target date: 3/7/22 . RSD stated, there was no new intervention added since the care plan was initiated. RSD stated, care plans were revised quarterly, Resident 20's care plan was not revised or reviewed quarterly and it should have been.
During a review of Resident 14's MDS assessment, dated 11/18/21, indicated, Resident 14's BIMS assessment score was 15 out of 15.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 11:16 a.m., with the Recreational Service Director (RSD), RSD reviewed Resident 14's care plan. Resident 14's Care Plan dated 11/27/20, indicated, . don't' have much interest in joining in facility programs. I like to keep busy with my independent activities such as reading and playing cards . RSD stated, Resident 14's activity care plan had not been updated and revised since 11/27/2020 to include the current preferences and interests for activity. RSD stated, Resident 14's activity preferences should have been reassessed and the care plan should have been updated and revised to reflect Resident 14's current activity goals and preferences.
During a review of Resident 45's MDS, dated 11/26/21, indicated, Resident 45's BIMS assessment score was 15 out of 15.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 11:18 a.m., with RSD, RSD reviewed Resident 45's care plan. The Care Plan dated 7/24/2018, indicated, . I don't have a lot of hobbies or interests. I prefer to socialize in my room and have my own daily agenda. RSD stated, Resident 45's activity care plan had not been updated and revised since 2018. RSD stated, the activity care plan should have been updated and revised to reflect Resident 45's current activity goals and preferences.
During an interview on 2/9/22, at 4:28 p.m., with Resident 45, Resident 45 stated, she enjoyed playing games and has not had any activities in awhile.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Care Planning Process, undated, the P&P indicated, . The care planning process will begin upon admission to the center The comprehensive care plan will be developed by the interdisciplinary team .The care plan will be person centered and incorporate the patient/resident's goals of care and treatment . On-going reviews will occur in conjunction with the RAI [Resident Assessment Instrument] process .
During a review of the facility policy and procedure titled, Quality of Life-Self Determination and Participation, dated 12/2013, the P&P indicated, . Our facility respects and promotes the right of each resident to exercise his or her autonomy regarding what the resident considers to be important facets of his or her life . In order to facilitate resident choices, staff shall . Gather information about the resident's personal preferences on initial assessment and periodically thereafter, and document these preferences in the medical record; c. Include information gathered about the resident's preferences in the care planning process . Residents shall be provided assistance as needed to engage in their preferred activities on a routine basis .
CONCERN
(E)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0658
(Tag F0658)
Could have caused harm · This affected multiple residents
Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to provide services which met professional standards of practice for three of 11 sampled residents (Residents 14, 29 and 52) when:
1. Resident...
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Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to provide services which met professional standards of practice for three of 11 sampled residents (Residents 14, 29 and 52) when:
1. Resident 14's (hydrocodone/acetaminophen brand name [medication used to treat pain]) was administered on 12/3/21 for a pain level of 10/10 ( 1-3 mild pain, 4-6 moderate pain, 7-9 severe pain, 10 excruciating pain on a scale of zero to 10) and acetaminophen (medication used to treat pain) was administered on 1/15/22 for a pain level of 10/10 and Licensed Nurses (LN) did not call the MD (medical doctor) to advise per MD's orders and LN's did not reassess pain within an hour after administering pain medication.
2. Resident 29's (hydrocodone/acetaminophen brand name) was administered on 2/1/22, 1/28/22, and 1/30/22 for a pain level of 10/10 and LN did not call the MD to advise per MD's orders and LN's did not reassess pain within an hour after administering pain medication.
These failure placed Resident 14 and Resident 28 at a potential risk of their pain not being relieved.
3. Resident 52's pain medications for rheumatoid arthritis (RA- an inflammatory disease that attacks the healthy cells in the body causing painful swelling in the affected parts of the body, mainly joints) was not started (tofacitinib brand name [used to treat certain types of arthritis]) daily and not available (methotrexate [used to treat inflammation and joint pain in RA]) weekly as ordered by the physician. This failure resulted in pain medications not being available for Resident 52's pain
Findings:
1. During a review of Resident 14's admission Record dated 2/9/22 was reviewed, the admission Record indicated, Resident was admitted to the facility with diagnosis which included pain.
During a review of Resident 14's Order Summary Report (OSR), dated 2/2022, the OSR indicated, . Monitor for pain during every shift daily. Pain scale rating: 0= No pain, 1-3= Mild pain, 4-6= Moderate pain, 7-9= Severe pain, and 10= Excruciating pain, call MD to advise every shift .
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 3:26 p.m., with Licensed Vocational Nurses (LVN) 4, Resident 14's Medication Administration Record (MAR), dated 1/22 and 12/21 was reviewed. The MAR indicated, 12/3/21 . [hydrocodone/acetaminophen brand name] . pain level 10 . 1/15/22 . Acetaminophen . pain level 10 . Monitor for pain during every shift daily . 10= Excruciating pain, call MD to advise . LVN 4 reviewed Resident 14's clinical record and stated, there was no progress note that the MD was called for a pain level of 10 and if it's not documented its not done. LVN 4 stated, it was professional standard of practice to follow MD orders and she should have followed MD orders.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/10/22, at 9:40 a.m., with LVN 1, Resident 14's Progress Notes (PN), dated 1/15/22 was reviewed. The PN indicated, . 1/15/22 04:18 Acetaminophen . every 6 hours as needed for pain . 1/15/22 10:26 . Administration was: Effective . LVN 1 stated, she should not have waited 6 hours to reassess Resident 14's pain after he had received pain medication. LVN 1 stated, pain should be reassessed after one hour of administering pain medication. LVN 1 stated, the purpose of reassessing pain was to evaluate the effectiveness of the pain medication and implement other interventions if the medication was ineffective.
2. During a review of Resident 29's admission Record dated 2/9/22 was reviewed, the admission Record indicated, Resident was admitted to the facility with diagnosis which included pain.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 3:45 p.m., with LVN 4, Resident 29's Medication Administration Record (MAR), dated 1/22 and 2/22 was reviewed. The MAR indicated, 1/28/22 . [hydrocodone/acetaminophen brand name] . pain level 10 . 1/30/22 pain level 10 . 2/1/22 pain level 10 . Monitor for pain during every shift daily . 10= Excruciating pain, call MD to advise .
LVN 4 reviewed Resident 29's clinical record and stated, there was no progress note that the MD was called for a pain level of 10 and if it's not documented its not done. LVN 4 stated, it was professional standard of practice to follow MD orders and she should have followed MD orders.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 3:50 p.m., with LVN 4, Resident 29's Progress Notes (PN), dated 1/30/22 and 2/1/2022 was reviewed. The PN indicated, . 1/30/2022 03:00 . Medication Administration . [hydrocodone/acetaminophen brand name] . 1/30/2022 06:34 . [hydrocodone/acetaminophen brand name] . Administration was: Effective . 2/01/2022 18:13 [6:13 p.m.] . Medication Administration . [hydrocodone/acetaminophen brand name] . 2/02/2022 01:54 . [hydrocodone/acetaminophen brand name] . Administration was: Effective . LVN 4 stated, it was standard of practice to reassess resident pain level within 30 minutes after administering pain medication. LVN 4 stated, Residents 29's pain assessment should not be more than an hour later. LVN 4 stated, the purpose of reassessing for pain was to evaluate the effectiveness of the pain medication.
During an interview on 2/14/21, at 11:22 a.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), the DON stated, it was standard of practice to follow MD orders and LN's should document a progress note when they call the MD. The DON stated, it should not take LN's 6 hours to reassess effectiveness of pain medication and that the standard of practice was to reassess within 30 minutes to an hour.
3. During an interview on 2/7/22, at 8:45 a.m., with Resident 52, Resident 52 stated, he had not received his medications (tofacitinib brand name and methotrexate) to help control his joint. Resident 52 stated, he was informed by facility staff he would not be receiving his medication while in facility since his insurance did not cover the cost of (tofacitinib brand name). Resident 52 stated, he was supposed to receive his other pain medication (methotrexate) on Wednesday mornings. Resident 52 stated, methotrexate was not always available from the pharmacy. Resident 52 stated, the staff did not give the medication until the following Wednesday when the methotrexate was not available for the scheduled day (Wednesday).
During a review of Resident 52's clinical record, a faxed document from the pharmacy, dated 1/21/22, the faxed document indicated the cost of Resident 52's (tofacitinib brand name) was $5,916.59 for a thirty-day supply. The fax document did not have a signature to authorize the medication to be dispensed by the pharmacy.
During a review of Resident 52's Medication Administration Record (MAR), dated 2/8/22, the MAR indicated, (tofacitinib brand name) and methotrexate was prescribed to be given daily. The MAR indicated, (tofacitinib brand name) was never started and methotrexate was not given on 12/8/22, 12/19/22 and 2/9/22 due to not being available on Wednesday morning.
During a review of Resident 52's clinical record, the Progress Notes dated 2/8/22, indicated a note by Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 11 which stated, Resident 52's (tofacitinib brand name) was not available. There was no documentation of a call informing the physician of medication (tofacitinib brand name) unavailability for Resident 52. There was no documentation informing Resident 52 he would not be receiving the methotrexate on 2/8/22.
During an interview on 2/9/22, at 9:10 a.m., in the facility hallway, the MDSC (Minimum Data Set Coordinator) was doing the medication pass (administration of medications). MDSC stated, Resident 52's scheduled pain medications, (tofacitinib brand name) and methotrexate have not been received from the pharmacy and were not administered to Resident 52.
During a concurrent observation and interview on 2/9/22, at 12:25 p.m., in the hallway by the kitchen, MDSC gave Resident 52 (acetaminophen brand name) for pain. Resident 52 stated, he was in constant pain. Resident 52 stated, his pain level was a five out of ten on the pain scale. Resident 52 stated, he did not receive (tofacitinib brand name) and methotrexate that day.
During a review of Resident 52's clinical record, the 'Progress Note dated 2/9/22, indicated a note by MDSC which stated, Resident 52's methotrexate, was not available, awaiting Pharmacy. There was no documentation of a call to inform the physician of medication unavailability.
During an interview on 2/10/22, at 1:30 pm, with MDSC, MDSC stated, that she did not give the methotrexate as ordered on 2/9/22 due to the medication being delivered after the morning medication pass. The MDSC stated the physician was not informed of the missed dose.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 2/15/22, at 12:01 p.m., with the Director of Nursing, DON stated, she was aware Resident 52 was not receiving (tofacitinib brand name) daily and methotrexate weekly. DON stated when the Methotrexate ordered to be given every Wednesday and when the pharmacy delivered med after the morning medication pass, the resident should not wait until the following Wednesday. DON stated the expectation would be for the nursing staff to give medication to resident as soon as received.
During an interview on 2/15/22, at 12:25 p.m. with the Medical Director (MD),
MD stated, he was not aware Resident 52 was not receiving his (tofacitinib brand name) medication. MD stated, Resident 52's pain would have been controlled with getting Methotrexate weekly. MD stated, he was not aware Resident 52 was not regularly receiving methotrexate. MD stated without either medication being given as prescribed, the resident would not have effective pain management.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled Pain Management Guideline, undated, the (P&P) indicated, . The physician is notified of pain assessment findings and order (s) obtained for pharmacological and/or non-pharmacological interventions, if indicated .
During a review of the Professional Reference titled, Improving Reassessment and Documentation of Pain Management dated 9/2008 (found at http://heilbrunnfamily.rucares.org/assets/file/pain%20management.pdf) indicated, . Pain should be reassessed after each pain management intervention, once a sufficient time has elapsed for the treatment to reach peak effect (for example, 15 to 30 minutes after a parenteral medication and 1 hour after oral medication or nonpharmacologic intervention) .
During a review of the Professional Reference titled, Does a Nurse Always Have to Follow a Doctor's Orders? dated 11/2021, retrieved from https://www.registerednursing.org/articles/does-nurse-always-follow-doctors-orders/#:~:text=In%20short%2C%20no%20a%20nurse,to%20follow%20a%20doctor's%20order.&text=If%20the%20doctor%20still%20insists,notify%20his%20or%20her%2 was reviewed. The professional reference indicated, . In short, no a nurse does not always have to follow a doctor's order. However, nurses cannot just randomly decide which order to follow and which not to follow. Unless there is a safety concern or an order that conflicts with personal or religious beliefs, failing to carry out orders can be grounds for discipline by the employer as well as the board of nursing, as it could be deemed neglect .
CONCERN
(E)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Pharmacy Services
(Tag F0755)
Could have caused harm · This affected multiple residents
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview, and record review, the facility failed to implement its pharmaceutical policies and procedures for two of tw...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview, and record review, the facility failed to implement its pharmaceutical policies and procedures for two of two controlled substance records reviewed (for Residents 44 and 20) when nursing staff did not ensure accurate controlled substance (medications which can be easily abused and under strict government control) accountability.
This failure had the potential for diversion (used illegally) of controlled substance medications.
Findings:
During a concurrent observation and interview on 2/7/22, at 4:14 p.m., with the Infection Preventionist (IP), inside the medication room, the narcotic binder was reviewed and observed to have CII medication (drugs that require additional care or regulations due to the potential of being intentionally or unintentionally abused) filed together with other control and non-controlled medications. IP stated, the control and non-controlled medication manifest (delivery details) were filed together in a binder. IP stated he did not know where the staff kept the manifest binder. IP stated, the DON knew where the manifest binder was kept.
During an interview on 2/8/22 at 11:02 a.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), DON stated, she could not find the CII medications manifest for facility residents for the month of 11/2021. DON stated she did not know the exact process of how controlled medication receipts were kept by licensed nurses. DON stated, there were no system in place to accurately reconcile controlled medications. DON stated, diversion could occur as a result of medications not being accurately reconciled. DON stated, the facility did not have a separate record of CII medications deliveries which made it difficult to audit and track the use of controlled medications.
During an interview on 2/8/22 at 11:07 a.m., with the DON, DON stated, she was not able to find the CII medications delivery receipt for Resident 44's 15 tablets of (hydrocodone/acetaminophen brand) 10/325 mg, dispensed on 1/5/22.
During a review of Resident 44's AR, dated 2/8/22, the AR indicated, Resident 44 was a [AGE] year old male who was admitted from an acute care hospital on [DATE] to the facility with diagnoses which included Anxiety Disorder (a mental health illness characterized by a sudden feeling of panic and fear, restlessness, and uneasiness), Spinal Stenosis (a medical condition causing lower back pain) and Unspecified Pain.
During a review of Resident 44's PO, dated 1/17/22, the PO indicated, . (hydrocodone/acetaminophen brand) Tablet 10-325 MG (HYDROcodone-Acetaminophen) Give 1 tablet by mouth every 6 hours related to SPINAL STENOSIS .
During a review of Resident 44's Medication Count Sheet (MCS), dated 1/5/22, the MCS indicated, . HYDROcodone-Acetaminophen 10-325 MG . QTY (Quantity) 15 .
During an interview on 2/8/22 at 1:11 p.m., with DON, DON stated she did not have a record of the delivery receipt for Resident 44's (hydrocodone/acetaminophen brand) 10/325 mg. DON stated she does not know the exact process of how controlled medications receipts are kept by licensed nurses. DON stated there were no system in place to accurately reconcile controlled medications and diversion could occur as a result of medications not being accurately reconciled. DON stated the facility does not have a separate record of CII medications, thus making it difficult to audit and track the use of controlled medication.
During a review of Resident 20's admission Record (AR), dated 2/8/22, the AR indicated Resident 20 was an [AGE] year old female who was admitted from an acute care hospital on 6/5/15 to the facility, with diagnoses which included Major Depressive Disorder, Anxiety Disorder, Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCD, a personality disorder characterized by excessive orderliness, perfectionism, attention to details, and a need for control in relating to others) and Vascular Dementia without Behavioral Disturbance.
During a review of Resident 20's Physician Order (PO), dated 8/15/2021, the PO indicated, . Morphine Sulfate [used to treat pain] ER Tablet Extended Release 15 MG [milligrams - unit of measure] Give 15 mg by mouth every 8 hours related to PAIN, UNSPECIFIED .
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/8/22 at 1:57 p.m., with the DON, Resident 20's Medical Record (MR), was reviewed. DON stated, she did not have records of narcotic count sheet for Resident 20's four tablets of Morphine ER 15 mg, dispensed on 1/10/22. DON stated, a diversion could occur if a narcotic count sheet was not used to account for Resident 20's Morphine ER.
During a phone interview on 2/14/22 at 1:41 p.m., with the Consultant Pharmacist (CP), CP stated, the facility should have a system in place to accurately reconcile controlled medications. CP stated, the facility should keep all delivery receipts for CII medications and the facility should have a binder in the medication room. CP stated, it was important to have a system in place to prevent diversion.
During a review of the facility's policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Controlled Medications - Ordering and Receipt undated, the P&P indicated, . An individual resident controlled substance record is prepared by the pharmacy or the facility for each controlled substance prescribed for a resident . A controlled drug record/log is furnished by the pharmacy or facility for each controlled drug in the emergency supply .
CONCERN
(E)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Drug Regimen Review
(Tag F0756)
Could have caused harm · This affected multiple residents
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview, and record review, the facility failed to ensure irregularities in the drug regimen review and resident char...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview, and record review, the facility failed to ensure irregularities in the drug regimen review and resident chart review were addressed for five of six sampled residents (Residents 4, 20, 21, 52 and 60) when:
1. There were no physician-documented resident clinical justification rationale for not conducting the required Gradual Dose Reduction (GDR- tapering of a dose to determine if symptoms, conditions, or risks can be managed by a lower dose or if the dose or medication can be discontinued) recommendation from the Consultant Pharmacist (CP) for Resident 21 and 52.
2. There was no baseline Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS- a side effect of antipsychotic medication) for Residents 4, 20, 21, 52 and 60 when antipsychotic medications were started.
3. Resident 52 did not have a documented monitoring for A1c (blood sugar measurement).
These failures resulted in Residents 4, 20, 21, 52 and 60 being administered psychotropic (drug that affects brain activities associated with mental processes and behavior) medications without documented clinical rationale to justify the benefit for continued dose; and increased the potential for drug interactions and adverse reactions associated with the use of psychotropic medications including but not limited to sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, anxiety, agitation, increased in blood sugar, memory loss, weight gain or weight loss, decreased blood pressure, seizures and difficulty swallowing.
Findings:
1. During a review of Resident 21's admission Record (AR), dated 2/8/22, the AR indicated Resident 21 is a [AGE] year old male who was admitted from an acute care hospital on 1/23/19 to the facility and readmitted to the facility on [DATE], whose diagnoses included unspecified dementia (a decline in memory or other thinking skills severe enough to reduce a person's ability to perform everyday activities) without behavioral disturbance, hyperlipidemia (high cholesterol), anxiety (a mental health illness characterized by a sudden feeling of panic and fear, restlessness, and uneasiness), muscle weakness, history of falling, and unspecified psychosis (a mental condition causing the person to experience false beliefs, seeing or hearing things that others do not see or hear) not due to a substance or known physiological condition.
During a review of Resident 21's Medical Record (MR), the MR indicated, Resident 21 had an order for quetiapine. A review of the physician's order, dated 6/18/20, indicated the Resident had an order for (quetiapine brand name) 50 mg (milligrams, unit of measurement) to be given twice a day for . UNSPECIFIED PSYCHOSIS NOT DUE TO SUBSTANCE OR KNOWN PHYSIOLOGICAL CONDITION . m/b [manifested by] delusional statements where he believes others belongings are his and is causing his emotional distress which effects his quality of life.
A review of the medication order, dated 7/3/20, indicated Resident 21's quetiapine order was increased to 100 mg twice a day for . UNSPECIFIED PSYCHOSIS NOT DUE TO SUBSTANCE OR KNOWN PHYSIOLOGICAL CONDITION . m/b delusional statements where he believes others belongings are his and is causing his emotional distress which effects his quality of life.
A review of the medication order, dated 9/23/20, indicated Resident 21's quetiapine order was increased to 200 mg twice a day for . UNSPECIFIED PSYCHOSIS NOT DUE TO SUBSTANCE OR KNOWN PHYSIOLOGICAL CONDITION . m/b delusional statements where he is agitated and wanting to go home.
A review of the medication order, dated 12/14/21, indicated Resident 21's quetiapine order was increased to 200 mg three times a day for . UNSPECIFIED PSYCHOSIS NOT DUE TO SUBSTANCE OR KNOWN PHYSIOLOGICAL CONDITION .
During a concurrent interview and observation, on 2/9/22 at 9:35 a.m., with Resident 21, Resident 21 was seating on his wheelchair and looking out through the patio door. Resident 21 stated, I cannot even think, I am lost, I feel dead here, I want to go home.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 2:05 p.m., with LVN 8, Resident 21's MAR, dated 2/9/22 was reviewed. LVN 8 stated, Resident 21 had 27 episodes of psychosis from 9/1/21 to 9/30/21, 23 episodes of psychosis from 10/1/21 to 10/31/21, and 15 episodes of psychosis from 11/1/2021 to 11/30/2021. LVN 8 stated, Resident 21's quetiapine order was increased to 200 mg three times a day on 12/14/21. LVN 8 stated, Resident 21's behavior decreased over the 3-month period [September 2021 to October 2021] and the quetiapine was increased on [DATE]. LVN 8 stated, it does not make sense to increase the medication [Quetiapine] when behavior had decreased.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 2:05 p.m., with LVN 8, Resident 21's Progress Notes (PN), dated 12/13/21 was reviewed. The PN indicated, . 12/13/21 at 2:47 p.m., Resident was very calm and quiet up in his chair with good tolerance, sleep and ate when meals came but otherwise very quiet . No behaviors . 12/14/21 at 2:01 p.m., Resident was awake this am ate breakfast this am and did well no c/o [complain of] any pain or discomfort. He was up this am was quiet and calm no behaviors at this time . 12/14/21 at 3:26 p.m., Resident has been lethargic [lack of energy] most of the time, at time he is awake and eats but lethargic most of the time. He has behaviors only in the evening. [ medical director (MD)] was here today and he was notified about resident being more lethargic and sleepier. See new orders. He was notified [Consultant Psychologist (PSY)], had placed him on this med see new changes. [NAME] wife called via phone and notified and agree with orders . LVN 8 stated, it did not make sense to increase the medication [Quetiapine] when behavior had decreased from the previous months. LVN 8 stated, increasing the medications could increase the side effects including the risk for fall, injury, and lethargy.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 2:13 p.m., with LVN 2, Resident 21's MAR, dated 2/9/22 was reviewed. LVN 2 stated, Resident 21's behavior decreased over the 3-month period [September 2021 to October 2021] and the quetiapine was increased on [DATE]. LVN 2 stated it was not appropriate to increase the dose of quetiapine when behavior had decreased.
During a telephone interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 10:03 a.m., with PSY, Resident 21's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. PSY stated he was not aware Resident 21's behavior decreased over the 3-month period [September 2021 to October 2021]. PSY stated, he relied on the lead nurse for the summary of behaviors. PSY stated, he increased the dosing of Resident 21's quetiapine based on the information he received from the nurse. PSY stated, if the behavior was decreasing it does not warrant an increase in dose of quetiapine. PSY stated, he was not aware of any attempted GDR [gradual dose reduction] with quetiapine. PSY stated he was not aware that quetiapine was for short-term use [for psychosis].
During a telephone interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 12:20 p.m., with CP, Resident 21's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. CP stated, he requested a GDR for quetiapine on October 2021 and November 2021 because of no behaviors noted, but it was declined by the provider, and no clinical justification was given. CP stated, the GDR was important because resident behavior can be controlled in a lower dose or no drug at all and could reduce side effects of drugs, drug-drug interactions and drug-disease interactions. CP acknowledged nursing did not monitor for symptoms of pseudo parkinsonism, akathisia and tardive dyskinesia as side effects of quetiapine and stated nursing is expected to monitor those symptoms.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 3:06 p.m., with the DON, Resident 21's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. DON stated she could not find GDR document and physician rationale for denying the GDR recommendation from the Consultant Pharmacist on 10/2021 and 11/2021.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 4:12 p.m., with the Director of Medical Records (MRD), Resident 21's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. The MRD reviewed Resident 21's medical records and was unable to find a copy of GDR for 10/2021 and 11/2021.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/15/22 at 12:26 p.m., with MD (Medical Director), Resident 21's MR, dated 2/15/22 was reviewed. MD stated he was Resident 21's attending physician. MD stated quetiapine was one of the medications used for psychosis and could be used for chronic psychosis. MD stated he does not know if the current dose [200 mg three times a day] was recommended by psychologist or somebody. MD stated he was not aware of the pharmacist recommendation on 10/2021 and 11/2021. MD stated he was not sure what happened on those recommendations [GDR] but normally he follows the recommendation of the Consultant Pharmacist.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/15/22 at 3:58 p.m., with the Assistant Administrator (AIT), Resident 21's MR, dated 2/15/22 was reviewed. AIT reviewed Resident 21's MR and was unable to find a copy of Pharmacist GDR recommendation and attending physician's response for 10/2021 and 11/2021.
According to the manufacturer's package insert for Quetiapine, adult dosing for psychosis associated with dementia indicate, For short-term adjunctive [added second to another treatment] use while addressing underlying cause(s) if severe symptoms . Immediate release: Oral: Initial: 15 mg at bedtime; may increase dose gradually (e.g., weekly) based on response and tolerability up to 75 mg twice daily .
During a review of Resident 52's AR dated 2/11/22, the AR indicated Resident 52 is a [AGE] year old male who was admitted from an acute care hospital on 6/14/16 to the facility whose diagnoses included Major Depressive Disorder and Anxiety.
A review of Resident 52's MR indicated a psychological evaluation was performed on 9/29/2020 with diagnoses of unspecified psychosis, anxiety and recurrent depression.
A review of Resident 52's MR indicated diagnosis of Schizophrenia was inputted in Resident 52's medical record on 10/9/2020.
A review of Resident 52's MR indicated Resident 52 had an order for Risperidone. A review of the prescriber's order, dated 5/9/21, indicated the Resident had an order for [Brand Name] tablet 1 MG Give 1 tablet by mouth at bedtime for . m/b [manifested by] auditory hallucinations [hearing voices] related to SCHIZOPHRENIA, UNSPECIFIED .
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/11/22 at 10:53 a.m., with LVN 8, Resident 52's MAR, dated 2/11/22 was reviewed. LVN 8 stated, a behavior monitoring for delusional behavior was initiated on 7/19/2020. LVN 8 stated, no documented behaviors for the following months: 5/21, 6/21, 7/21, 8/21, 9/21, 10/21, 11/21, 12/21 and 1/22. LVN 8 stated, the decrease in behavior meant that resident was getting better and decreasing the medication dose might be appropriate.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/11/22 at 11:10 a.m., with LVN 8, Resident 52's MR, dated 2/11/22 was reviewed. LVN 8 reviewed Resident 52's medical records and was unable to find documentation of GDR for Risperidone. LVN 8 stated, decreasing the medication dose for residents could lessen drug side effects, residents should be treated with the least effective dose.
During a telephone interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 1:14 p.m., with CP, Resident 52's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. CP stated, he requested a GDR for Risperidone on November 2021 because of no behaviors noted for several months, but it was declined by the provider. CP stated, the GDR was important because resident behavior can be controlled in a lower dose or no drug at all and could reduce side effects of drugs, drug-drug interactions and drug-disease interactions.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 5:06 p.m., with the DON, Resident 52's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. DON stated, she could not find GDR document and physician rationale for denying the GDR recommendation from the Consultant Pharmacist on 11/21. DON stated, the decrease in behavior meant that resident was getting better and an attempt to decrease the medication dose was appropriate.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/15/22 at 1:17 p.m., with MD and AIT, Resident 52's MR, dated 2/15/22 was reviewed. MD stated, he was not aware of the pharmacist GDR recommendation on 11/2021. MD stated, he was not sure what happened on those recommendations [GDR] but normally he follows the recommendation of the Consultant Pharmacist. MD stated, decreasing the medication dose was appropriate for resident with decrease in behavior. MD stated, if he was not informed of the resident condition, he cannot do anything about it [condition].
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/15/22 at 3:58 p.m., with AIT, Resident 52's MR, dated 2/15/22 was reviewed. AIT reviewed Resident 52's MR and was unable to find a copy of Pharmacist GDR recommendation and attending physician's response for 11/2021. AIT stated the information should be in resident's chart for reference.
The facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Psychoactive Drug Monitoring undated, indicated, . Residents receive a psychoactive medication only if designated medically necessary by the prescriber. The medical necessity is documented in the resident's medical record and in the care planning process. The continued need for the psychoactive medication is reassessed regularly by the prescriber and the care planning team. If continuation is deemed necessary, this is indicated in the medical record. Effects of the medications are documented as part of the care planning process. Unless medically contraindicated, periodic dosage reductions are attempted and the results documented .
The facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Drug Regimen Review (Monthly Report) undated, indicated, . The resident's response to drug treatment is evaluated through the use of laboratory data, physical assessment, medication administration record, and other data to determine if therapeutic goals are achieved . In performing drug regimen review, the consultant pharmacist incorporated federally mandated standards of care . Resident-specific DRR recommendations and findings are documented and acted upon by the facility licensed personnel and/or physician .
2. During a review of Resident 4's AR, dated 2/9/22, the AR indicated Resident 4 was admitted from an acute care hospital on 7/22/21 to the facility, whose diagnoses included Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (group of lung diseases that block airflow and make it difficult to breath), Anxiety Disorder (a mental health illness characterized by a sudden feeling of panic and fear, restlessness, and uneasiness), Schizophrenia (chronic and severe mental disorder that affects the way a person thinks, acts, expresses emotions, perceives reality, and relates to others), Major Depressive Disorder (a mood disorder that causes a persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest), and Dementia (a decline in memory or other thinking skills severe enough to reduce a person's ability to perform everyday activities) in Other Diseases Classified Elsewhere with Behavioral Disturbance.
A review of Resident 4's Medical Record (MR), indicated Resident 4 had an order for Olanzapine. A review of the prescriber's order, dated 1/23/22, indicated the Resident had an order for OLANZapine Table 20 MG (milligrams, unit of measurement) Give 1 tablet by mouth one time a day for Manifested by threatening behaviors to self and others related to SCHIZOPHRENIA, UNSPECIFIED .
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/10/22, at 5:10 p.m., with LVN 9, Resident 4's MR, dated 2/10/22 was reviewed. LVN 9 was unable to find documented evidence of AIMS baseline when Resident 4 was started on antipsychotics. LVN 9 stated, AIMS baseline was important to monitor if Resident 4 was having any adverse reaction to antipsychotics.
During a telephone interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 12:48 p.m., with CP, Resident 4's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. CP stated, no AIMS test was done at baseline for Resident 4. CP stated, baseline AIMS was important, serving as a benchmark for monitoring adverse side effects of antipsychotics.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 3:48 p.m., with DON, Resident 4's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. DON stated, no baseline AIMS was completed. DON stated, baseline AIMS was important to monitor for pseudoparkinson, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. DON stated, nursing staff should monitor for side effects and ensure resident was free from bad reaction.
During a review of Resident 20's AR, dated 2/10/22, the AR indicated Resident 20 is a [AGE] year old female who was admitted from an acute care hospital on 6/5/15 to the facility, whose diagnoses included Major Depressive Disorder, Anxiety Disorder, Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCD, a personality disorder characterized by excessive orderliness, perfectionism, attention to details, and a need for control in relating to others) and Vascular Dementia without Behavioral Disturbance.
A review of Resident 20's MR indicated the diagnosis Schizophrenia was inputted in Resident 20's medical record on 4/15/21. The MR indicated Olanzapine 10 mg once daily related to mood disorder due to know physiological condition unspecified m/b repetitive verbalization, ordered and discontinued on 4/15/21. Olanzapine 10 mg once daily related to schizophrenia m/b constantly reparative yelling asking for family members, ordered from 4/16/21 to 4/30/21. Olanzapine 10 mg in the morning for yelling out related to schizophrenia, constantly yelling out none stop for more than 2 mins (minutes) ordered 9/3/21 to present.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/11/22, at 2:43 p.m., with LVN 8, Resident 20's MR, dated 2/11/22 was reviewed. LVN 8 was unable to find documented evidence of AIMS baseline when Resident 20 was started on Olanzapine on 4/15/2021 or 9/2021. LVN 8 stated, an abnormal involuntary movement is a side effect of Olanzapine, should be monitor at all times, and reported immediately to the doctor. LVN 8 stated, If abnormal movement was observed, will have to stop the medication and notify the doctor immediately.
During a telephone interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 12:56 p.m., with CP, Resident 20's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. CP stated, no AIMS test was done at baseline and he did not recommend a baseline AIMS for Resident 20. CP stated, baseline AIMS was important, serving as a benchmark for monitoring adverse side effects of antipsychotics.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 4:44 p.m., with the DON, Resident 20's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. DON stated, no baseline AIMS was completed. DON stated, baseline AIMS was important to monitor for pseudoparkinson, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. DON stated, nursing staff should monitor for side effects and ensure resident was free from bad reaction.
According to the manufacturer's package insert (specific information about the drug) for Olanzapine, frequency of monitoring indicate, . monitoring parameter Extrapyramidal symptoms . Frequency of monitoring . Every visit; 4 weeks after initiation and dose change; annually. Use a formalized rating scale at least annually or every 6 months if high risk.
During a review of Resident 21's admission Record (AR), dated 2/8/22, the AR indicated Resident 21 is an [AGE] year old male who was admitted from an acute care hospital on 1/23/19 to the facility and readmitted to the facility on [DATE], whose diagnoses included unspecified dementia (a decline in memory or other thinking skills severe enough to reduce a person's ability to perform everyday activities) without behavioral disturbance, hyperlipidemia (high cholesterol), anxiety (a mental health illness characterized by a sudden feeling of panic and fear, restlessness, and uneasiness), muscle weakness, history of falling, and unspecified psychosis (a mental condition causing the person to experience false beliefs, seeing or hearing things that others do not see or hear) not due to a substance or known physiological condition.
During a review of Resident 21's Medical Record (MR), indicated Resident 21 had an order for quetiapine. A review of the prescriber's order, dated 6/18/20, indicated the Resident had an order for [Brand Name for Quetiapine] 50 mg (milligrams, unit of measurement) to be given twice a day for . UNSPECIFIED PSYCHOSIS NOT DUE TO SUBSTANCE OR KNOWN PHYSIOLOGICAL CONDITION . m/b [manifested by] delusional statements where he believes others belongings are his and is causing his emotional distress which effects [affects] his quality of life.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/9/22, at 12:21 p.m., with LVN 8, Resident 21's MR, dated 2/9/22 was reviewed. LVN 8 was unable to find documented evidence of AIMS (Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale) baseline when Resident 21 was started on Quetiapine. LVN 8 stated, an abnormal involuntary movement is a side effect of Quetiapine, should be monitored at all times, and reported immediately to the doctor. LVN 8 stated, If abnormal movement was observed, will have to stop the medication and notify the doctor immediately.
During a telephone interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 12:20 p.m., with CP, Resident 21's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. CP stated, no AIMS test was done at baseline for Resident 21. CP stated, he requested the two previous DON (Director of Nursing) to conduct AIMS test in 9/2021 and 11/2021, both were not done. CP stated, baseline AIMS was important, serving as a benchmark for monitoring adverse side effects of antipsychotics.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 3:06 p.m., with the DON, Resident 21's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. DON stated, no AIMS was completed for Resident 21. DON stated, baseline AIMS was important to monitor for pseudoparkinson, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.
According to the manufacturer's package insert (specific information about the drug) for Quetiapine, frequency of monitoring indicate, . monitoring parameter Extrapyramidal symptoms . Frequency of monitoring . Every visit; 4 weeks after initiation and dose change; annually. Use a formalized rating scale at least annually or every 6 months if high risk.
During a review of Resident 52's AR, dated 2/11/22, the AR indicated Resident 52 was admitted from an acute care hospital on 6/14/16 to the facility whose diagnoses included Major Depressive Disorder and Anxiety.
During a review of Resident 52's MR, dated 2/11/22, the MR indicated diagnosis of Schizophrenia was inputted in Resident 52's medical record on 10/9/20.
A review of Resident 52's MR indicated Resident 52 had an order for Risperidone. A review of the prescriber's order, dated 5/9/21, indicated the Resident had an order for (brand name for Risperidone tablet 1 MG Give 1 tablet by mouth at bedtime for . m/b auditory hallucinations [hearing voices] related to SCHIZOPHRENIA, UNSPECIFIED .
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/11/22 at 11:14 a.m., with LVN 8, Resident 52's MR, dated 2/11/22 was reviewed. LVN 8 was unable to find documented evidence of AIMS baseline when Resident 52 was started on Risperidone. LVN 8 stated, AIMS baseline was important to monitor if Resident 52 was having any adverse reaction to antipsychotics. LVN 8 stated, AIMS is a side effect, If abnormal movement was observed, will have to stop the medication and notify the doctor immediately.
During a telephone interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 1:14 p.m., with CP, Resident 52's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. CP stated, there was no baseline AIMS for Resident 52. CP stated, baseline AIMS was important, serving as a benchmark for monitoring adverse side effects of antipsychotics. CP stated, nursing should be monitoring for pseudo parkinsonism, akathisia and tardive dyskinesia as side effects of Risperidone.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 5:06 p.m., with the DON, Resident 52's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. DON stated, no baseline AIMS was completed. DON stated, baseline AIMS was important to monitor for pseudoparkinson, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. DON stated, nursing staff should monitor for side effects and ensure resident was free from bad reaction.
According to the manufacturer's package insert for risperidone, frequency of monitoring indicate, . monitoring parameter Extrapyramidal symptoms Frequency of monitoring . Every visit; 4 weeks after initiation and dose change; annually. Use a formalized rating scale at least annually or every 6 months if high risk.
During a review of Resident 60's AR, dated 2/10/22, the AR indicated Resident 60 is a [AGE] year old male who was admitted from an acute care hospital on 6/23/21 to the facility, whose diagnoses included Chronic Kidney Disease (decreased kidney function that worsens over time), Human Immunodeficiency Virus Disease (HIV, a life threatening infection, transmitted through direct contact with HIV-infected body fluids, blood), and Encephalopathy (disease that affects the brain due to lack of oxygen).
A review of Resident 60's hospital discharge records, dated 6/23/21, indicated a physician order for Aripiprazole 15 mg po daily and a diagnosis of acute psychosis (condition that causes one to lose touch with reality due to a mental illness or medical condition).
A review of Resident 60's MR indicated that upon admission to the facility, Resident 60 was initiated on aripiprazole. A review of the prescriber's order, dated 6/23/21, indicated Resident 60 had an order for Aripiprazole Tablet 15 MG to be given at bedtime, . for psychosis manifested by striking out and cursing at staff related to UNSPECIFIED PSYCHOSIS NOT DUE TO SUBSTANCE OR KNOWN PHYSIOLOGICAL CONDITION .
A review of the medication order, dated 1/6/22, indicated Resident 60's Aripiprazole indication and dose was changed, . Aripiprazole Tablet 10 MG Give 1 tablet by mouth at bedtime for manifested by sticking [striking] out and cursing at staff related to SCHIZOPHRENIA, UNSPECIFIED .
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/11/22, at 2:06 p.m., with LVN 8, Resident 60's MR, dated 2/11/22 was reviewed. LVN 8 was unable to find documented evidence of AIMS baseline when Resident 60 was started on antipsychotics on 6/24/21. LVN 8 stated AIMS baseline was important to monitor if Resident 4 was having any adverse reaction to antipsychotics. LVN 8 stated, AIMS is a side effect, If abnormal movement was observed, will have to stop the medication and notify the doctor immediately.
During a telephone interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 1:07 p.m., with CP, Resident 60's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. CP stated there was no baseline AIMS and he did not make a recommendation for baseline AIMS for Resident 60. CP stated baseline AIMS was important, serving as a benchmark for monitoring adverse side effects of antipsychotics. CP stated nursing should be monitoring for pseudo parkinsonism, akathisia and tardive dyskinesia as side effects of Aripiprazole.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 4:52 p.m., with the DON, Resident 60's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. DON stated no baseline AIMS was completed. DON stated baseline AIMS was important to monitor for pseudoparkinson, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. DON stated nursing staff should monitor for side effects and ensure resident was free from bad reaction.
According to the manufacturer's package insert for Aripiprazole indicate, Aripiprazole may cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), also known as drug-induced movement disorders, particularly akathisia in all ages. Antipsychotics can cause 4 main EPS: Drug-induced parkinsonism, akathisia, acute dystonia, and tardive dyskinesia.
According to the manufacturer's package insert for Aripiprazole, monitoring include, Assess for extrapyramidal symptoms prior to and during therapy.
The facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Psychoactive Drug Monitoring undated, indicated, . Residents who are receiving antipsychotic drug therapy are adequately monitored for significant side effects of such therapy, through the use of the AIMS .
The facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Standing Orders For Routine Medication Therapy Monitoring (Optional) undated, indicated, . Antipsychotic Medications . Upon admission or initiation of drug therapy and every six (6) months thereafter, the resident is monitored . AIMS test or a similar test .
3. During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/11/22 at 11:14 a.m., with LVN 8, Resident 52's MR, dated 2/11/22 was reviewed. LVN 8 was unable to find documented evidence of monitoring for A1C when Resident 52 was started on Risperidone. LVN 8 stated, without the appropriate monitoring of blood sugar, Resident 52 could have elevated blood sugar level.
During a telephone interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 1:14 p.m., with CP, Resident 52's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. CP stated, no documented monitoring for A1c for Resident 52. CP stated, without the appropriate monitoring of blood sugar, Resident 52 could have medical complications.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 2/14/22 at 5:06 p.m., with the DON, Resident 52's MR, dated 2/14/22 was reviewed. DON stated no baseline A1C for Resident 52.
DON stated, without the appropriate monitoring of blood sugar, Resident 52 could have medical complications.
According to the manufacturer's package insert for risperidone, frequency of monitoring indicate, . monitoring parameter Fasting plasma glucose/HbA1c . frequency of monitoring . 12 weeks after initiation and dose change; annually
CONCERN
(E)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Unnecessary Medications
(Tag F0759)
Could have caused harm · This affected multiple residents
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to ensure the facility medication error rate did not exc...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to ensure the facility medication error rate did not exceed five percent or greater when observation of 28 opportunities during the medication pass resulted in six errors. The calculated medication error rate was 19.23 percent.
These failures resulted in:
1. Placing Resident 22 at risk for weight gain and increased blood pressure as a result of not taking Furosemide (used to treat in removing extra fluid in the body caused by conditions such as heart failure) and at risk for elevated magnesium blood levels as a result of not taking Magnesium Oxide (used to treat low blood levels of magnesium) at least two hours apart from other medicines.
2. Placing Resident 57 at risk for elevated blood sugar levels as a result of taking an expired Insulin Lispro (used to control high blood sugar) and at risk for elevated potassium blood level and stomach upset as a result of crushing Potassium Chloride Extended Release (used to treat low blood levels of potassium).
3. Placing Resident 34 at risk for increased blood pressure as a result of not taking Carvedilol (used to treat elevated blood pressure and heart failure).
Findings:
1. During a review of Resident 22's admission Record (AR, document with resident information), dated [DATE], the AR indicated Resident 22 was admitted to the facility on [DATE] with diagnoses which included . Hypertensive Heart Disease Without Heart Failure (heart problems that occur because of high blood pressure) . Deficiency (lack of) of Other Vitamins . Edema .
During a medication administration observation on [DATE], at 11:54 a.m., with LVN 2, in the A wing hallway, LVN 2 prepared Resident 22's medications which included Magnesium Oxide 400 milligram (mg- unit of measurement) tablet. LVN 2 administered magnesium oxide 400 mg together with 7 medication tablets to Resident 22 with 160 ml (milliliters, unit of measurement) of water.
During a concurrent interview and record review on [DATE], at 2:27 p.m., with LVN 2, Resident 22's Physician Order (PO), dated [DATE] was reviewed. The PO indicated, Magnesium Oxide Tablet 400 MG Give 1 tablet by mouth one time a day related to DEFICIENCY OF OTHER VITAMINS . LVN 2 acknowledged magnesium oxide was administered with Resident 22's other 7 medication tablets. LVN 2 stated she did not know that magnesium oxide should be administered separately from other medications.
During a review of a professional reference review Lexicomp, the manufacturer's instructions for Magnesium Oxide indicated, . Administer at least 2 hours apart from other medications .
During a concurrent interview and record review on [DATE], at 2:29 p.m., with LVN 2, Resident 22's Medication Administration Record (MAR), dated [DATE] was reviewed.
The MAR indicated, [Brand Name] Tablet 20 mg (Furosemide) Give 1 tablet by mouth one time a day related to EDEMA UNSPECIFIED . LVN 2 stated she did not give the medication during med [medication] pass. LVN 2 stated Resident 22 could potentially have an elevated blood pressure. LVN 2 stated it was important to administer medication as ordered by the physician.
During a concurrent phone interview and record review on [DATE], at 1:30 p.m., with Consultant Pharmacist (CP), Resident 22's Medical Record (MR), dated [DATE] was reviewed. CP stated magnesium oxide should be administer separate from other medications at least two hours apart for effectiveness.
During a concurrent phone interview and record review on [DATE], at 1:32 p.m., with CP, Resident 22's Medical Record (MR), dated [DATE] was reviewed. CP stated Furosemide should be administered according to physician's order. CP stated Resident 22 could potentially have fluid retention, elevated blood pressure and stroke due to missed dose.
During a review of a professional reference review Lexicomp, the manufacturer instructions for Furosemide indicated, . used to get rid of extra fluid . used to treat high blood pressure .
During an interview on [DATE], at 5:20 p.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), DON stated she expects nursing staff to follow manufacturer specification for magnesium oxide. DON stated if staff do not know why they have to wait for 2 hours before administering magnesium oxide, they [nursing] could call the pharmacy to find out.
During an interview on [DATE], at 5:23 p.m., with the DON, DON stated she expects nursing staff to follow physician order for administering Furosemide. DON stated Resident 22 could potentially have fluid retention and elevated blood pressure due to a missed dose.
During a review of the facility's policy and procedure (P&P) titled, General Procedures To Follow For All Medications, undated, the P&P indicated, . Medications are administered as prescribed in accordance with good nursing principles and practices .
2. During a review of Resident 57's AR, dated [DATE], the AR indicated Resident 57 was admitted to the facility on [DATE] with diagnoses which included . Hypertensive Heart Disease Without Heart Failure . Vitamin Deficiency . Diabetes Mellitus (a disorder in which blood sugar or glucose levels are abnormally high) .
During a medication administration observation on [DATE], at 4:42 p.m., with LVN 2, in the A wing hallway, LVN 2 prepared Resident 57's medications which included Potassium Chloride ER 20 MEQ (Milliequivalents, unit of measurement). LVN 2 was observed crush potassium chloride ER 20 meq tablet with 4 of Resident 57's medication tablets. LVN 2 was observed mixing the 5 crushed medications tablets with applesauce and administering them to Resident 57.
During a review of Resident 57's Physician's Phone Order dated [DATE], the Physician's Phone Order indicated, . Potassium Chloride ER Tablet Extended Release 20 MEQ Give 1 tablet daily by mouth in the evening related to ESSENTIAL (PRIMARY) HYPERTENSION .
During a medication administration observation on [DATE], at 4:44 p.m., with LVN 7, in the D wing hallway, LVN 7 obtained the blood glucose sample from Resident 57's left hand second finger. LVN 7 stated the blood sugar was 299 and she would call the doctor for an order.
During an interview on [DATE], at 4:46 p.m., with LVN 2, in the A wing hallway, LVN 2 acknowledged she had crushed the potassium chloride ER 20 meq tablet prior to administering it to Resident 57, and stated she was not aware of the manufacturer's specification not to crush potassium chloride ER.
During a review of a professional reference review Lexicomp, the manufacturer instructions for Potassium Chloride ER indicated, . Swallow tablets whole; do not crush, chew, or suck on tablet .
During a medication administration observation on [DATE], at 4:50 p.m., with LVN 7, in the D wing hallway, LVN 7 stated the doctor instructed her to give 12 units (unit of measurement) of Insulin Lispro. LVN 7 was observed withdrawing 12 units of Insulin Lispro from the vial that did not have an expiration date, and injecting the 12 units of Insulin Lispro subcutaneously (administer under the skin) to Resident 57's left lower abdominal area.
During a review of Resident 57's Physician's Phone Order dated [DATE], the Physician's Phone Order indicated, . [Brand Name] Solution 100 UNIT/ML (Insulin Lispro) Inject 10 unit subcutaneously before meals related to TYPE 2 DIABETES MELLITUS WITHOUT COMPLICATIONS . Hold if blood sugar less than 160. Call MD if BS greater than 250 or less than 60 .
During a concurrent interview and observation on [DATE], at 4:52 p.m., with LVN 2, in the A wing hallway, LVN 2 stated the vial of Insulin Lispro did not have a label to indicate when to discard the vial. LVN acknowledged she was unable to determine whether the insulin was expired, and stated the insulin vial should have an open date and disposed by date. LVN 2 stated Resident 57's blood sugar level could be affected if the insulin was expired.
During a review of a professional reference review Lexicomp, the manufacturer instructions for Lispro Insulin indicated, . should be stored at room temperatures <30°C (<86°F) and used within 28 days .
During a concurrent phone interview and record review on [DATE], at 1:34 p.m., with CP, Resident 57's Medical Record (MR), dated [DATE] was reviewed. CP stated Potassium Chloride ER was included in the Facility's Do Not Crush List. CP stated Resident 22 could have a high level of potassium right away instead of evenly distributed potassium level for a certain period of time. CP stated crushing and administering Potassium Chloride ER by mouth could also cause stomach upset.
During a concurrent phone interview and record review on [DATE], at 1:36 p.m., with CP, Resident 57's Medical Record (MR), dated [DATE] was reviewed. CP stated Insulin Lispro vial should have an open and expiration date. CP stated expired insulin could result to a less desired effect for Resident 57.
During an interview on [DATE], at 5:20 p.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), DON stated she expects nursing staff to follow manufacturer's specification for potassium chloride ER and Insulin Lispro. DON stated Resident 22 could have a high blood level of potassium and could cause cardiac arrest (heart stops beating suddenly). DON stated nurses should indicate the open and expiration date for Insulin Lispro in the vial. DON stated expired insulin could result to uncontrolled blood sugar for Resident 57.
During a review of the facility's policy and procedure (P&P) titled, General Procedures To Follow For All Medications, undated, the P&P indicated, . Medications are administered as prescribed in accordance with good nursing principles and practices . Crush medications if indicated for this resident only after checking the Crush List .
3. During a review of Resident 34's admission Record (AR), dated [DATE], the AR indicated Resident 34 was admitted to the facility on [DATE] with diagnoses which included
. Hypertensive Heart Disease With Heart Failure .
During a medication administration observation on [DATE], at 8:17 a.m., with LVN 7, in the D wing hallway, LVN 7 prepared Resident 34's medications. LVN was observed administering 5 medication tablets to Resident 34 during the morning medication pass.
During a concurrent interview and record review on [DATE], at 11:40 a.m., with LVN 7, Resident 34's Medical Record (MR), dated [DATE] was reviewed. LVN 7 stated she did not administer the morning dose of Carvedilol. LVN 7 stated Resident 34 should get six medications and not five. LVN 7 stated Resident 34 blood pressure might go up because Carvedilol was not administered according to the physician's order.
During a review of Resident 34's Physician's Phone Order dated [DATE], the Physician's Phone Order indicated, . Carvedilol Tablet 6.25 MG Give 1 tablet by mouth two times a day related to ESSENTIAL (PRIMARY) HYPERTENSION .
During a review of a professional reference review Lexicomp, the manufacturer instructions for Carvedilol indicated, . for management of hypertension .
During a concurrent phone interview and record review on [DATE], at 1:38 p.m., with CP, Resident 34's Medical Record (MR), dated [DATE] was reviewed. CP stated Carvedilol
should be administer according to physician's order. CP stated Resident 34 could potentially have elevated blood pressure due to a missed dose.
During an interview on [DATE], at 5:25 p.m., with the DON, DON stated she expects nursing staff to follow physician order for administering Carvedilol. DON stated Resident 22 could potentially have elevated blood pressure due to a missed dose.
During a review of the facility's policy and procedure (P&P) titled, General Procedures To Follow For All Medications, undated, the P&P indicated, . Medications are administered as prescribed in accordance with good nursing principles and practices .
4. During a review of Resident 188's AR, dated [DATE], the AR indicated Resident 188 was admitted to the facility on [DATE] with diagnoses which included . Asthma .
During a concurrent interview and medication cart observation on [DATE], at 3:19 p.m., with LVN 10, in the C wing hallway, LVN 10 pulled out a clear package with a Budesonide-Formoterol Fumarate inhaler. LVN 10 stated the inhaler was used but no open date and no disposed by date. LVN 10 stated the inhaler should have a resident name and the date it was opened. LVN 10 stated without an open date and disposed by date, it would be hard to determine if the medication was expired.
During a concurrent phone interview and record review on [DATE], at 1:40 p.m., with CP, Resident 188's Medical Record (MR), dated [DATE] was reviewed. CP stated Budesonide-Formoterol Fumarate inhaler should have an open and disposed by date. CP stated expired inhaler could result to a less desired effect for Resident 188.
During a review of Resident 188's Physician's Phone Order dated [DATE], the Physician's Phone Order indicated, . [Brand Name] 80-4.5 MCG/ACT (Budesonide-Formoterol Fumarate) 2 puffs inhale orally two times a day related to OTHER ASTHMA .
During a review of Resident 188's Physician Order (PO), dated [DATE], the PO indicated, . [Brand Name] 80-4.5 MCG/ACT (Budesonide-Formoterol Fumarate) 2 puff inhale orally two times a day related to OTHER ASTHMA .
During an interview on [DATE], at 5:25 p.m., with the DON, DON stated she expect nursing staff to follow manufacturer specification for Budesonide-Formoterol Fumarate inhaler. DON stated nurses should indicate the open and expiration date for Budesonide-Formoterol Fumarate inhaler. DON stated expired inhaler could result to less optimal effect for Resident 188.
During a review of a professional reference review Lexicomp, the manufacturer instructions for Budesonide-Formoterol Fumarate indicated, . for treatment of asthma . discard inhaler after the labeled number of inhalations have been used or within 3 months after removal from foil pouch .
CONCERN
(E)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0761
(Tag F0761)
Could have caused harm · This affected multiple residents
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to safely store, and label drugs and supplies in accorda...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to safely store, and label drugs and supplies in accordance with acceptable standards of practice when:
1. There were 28 expired intravenous (IV, given through a vein) medications were not removed from the medication room and were available for administration. This failure placed residents at a potential risk of being given expired IV medications which could compromise the health of residents.
2. One of two medication carts stored two expired medications (Docusate Sodium and Nystatin Powder) and were available for administration, and one medication (Nystatin Powder) was stored in the medication cart with no patient identifier. This failure placed residents at a potential risk of being given expired and unlabeled medications.
3. Resident 188's Budesonide-Formoterol (medication for shortness of breath) inhaler was opened and available for use without an open date label, dispose by date label and patient identifier. This failure placed Resident 188 at a potential risk of using expired, ineffective inhaler in the event it was needed.
4. Resident 57's Insulin Lispro (medication for high blood sugar) was opened and available for use without an open date and dispose by date label. This failure placed Resident 57 at a potential risk of being given an expired, ineffective medication for blood sugar that could lead to high blood sugar.
5. One the medication cart (out of four) was left unlocked and unattended by Registered Nurse (RN 1). This failure resulted in a potential for residents and staff to have unauthorized access to medications.
Findings:
1. During a concurrent observation and interview on 2/7/22, at 10:37 a.m., with Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 1, inside the medication room, LVN 1 stated, the IV E-KIT (emergency kit, a box containing medications needed to manage life-threatening conditions) Number 1 had expired IV antibiotic medications. LVN 1 stated, there were expired IV antibiotic (medicines to fight infections) medications in vials (12) and pre-mixed bags (2). The expired IV antibiotics were metronidazole premix 500 mg/100 ml (2 bags) expired on 1/22, Ampicillin 1g (2 vials) expired on 1/22, cefazolin 1 gm (1 vial) expired on 12/21, Nafcillin 2gm (3 vials) expired on 11/21, Zosyn 2.25 gm (3 vials) expired on 11/21, and Zosyn 3.375 gm (3 vials) expired on 1/22. LVN 1 stated, expired antibiotic medications were less effective in treating infections when administered to resident. LVN 1 stated, licensed nurses were supposed to check for medication expiration date on a regular basis.
During a concurrent observation and interview on 2/7/22, at 10:42 a.m., with Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 1, inside the medication room, LVN 1 stated, the IV E-KIT Number 2 hah expired IV medication. LVN 1 stated, a bag of Dextrose 50% 50 ml expired on 1/22. LVN 1 stated, expired medications were less effective when administered to resident. LVN 1 stated licensed nurses were supposed to check for medication expiration date on a regular basis.
During a concurrent observation and interview on 2/7/22, at 10:45 a.m., with Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 1, inside the medication room, LVN 1 stated the IV E-KIT Number 3 had expired IV fluids and antibiotic medications. LVN 1 stated there were expired IV fluids (1) and medications in pre-mixed bags (2) and (10) vials. LVN 1 stated, the expired IV antibiotic medications were Dextrose 10% 1000 ml (1 bag) expired on 10/21, Metronidazole premix 500 mg/100 ml (2 bags) expired on 11/21, Ampicillin 1 gm (2) expired on 1/22, Ceftazidime 1gm (2 vials ) expired 1/22, Zosyn 2.25gm (3 vials) expired 12/21, and Zosyn 3.375 gm (3 vials) expired on 10/21. LVN 1 stated, expired antibiotic medications were less effective in treating infections when administered to resident. LVN 1 stated, licensed nurses were supposed to check for medication expiration date on a regular basis.
During a phone interview on 2/14/21, at 1:40 p.m., with the Consultant Pharmacist (CP), CP stated, expired medications should not be given to a resident because the medication may not be effective. CP stated, administering expired medication is consider as medication error. CP stated, he mentioned to the nursing staff two months ago that the IV E-KIT medications were expiring soon.
During an interview on 2/14/22, at 5:20 p.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), DON stated, nurses should be checking expiration date and returning the expired medications to pharmacy. DON stated, administration of expired medications could cause the medication to lose their effectiveness.
According to the manufacturer's package insert, Metronidazole is an antibiotic medication. The insert indicates, . for treatment of serious infections caused by susceptible anaerobic
(bacteria most commonly found in the stomach area) bacteria .
According to the manufacturer's package insert, Ampicillin is an antibiotic medication. The insert indicates, . for treatment of infections caused by susceptible (vulnerable) strains (subtype) of the designated organisms (bacteria) .
According to the manufacturer's package insert, Cefazolin is an antibiotic medication. The insert indicates, . treatment of the following serious infections due to susceptible organisms .
According to the manufacturer's package insert, Nafcillin is an antibiotic medication. The insert indicates, . treatment of infections caused by . staphylococci (bacteria) which have demonstrated susceptibility to the drug .
According to the manufacturer's package insert, Zosyn is an antibiotic medication. The insert indicates, . treatment of intra-abdominal (stomach) infections, skin infections .
According to the manufacturer's package insert, Ceftazidime is an antibiotic medication. The insert indicates, . treatment of patients with infections caused by susceptible strains of the designated organisms .
According to the manufacturer's package insert, Dextrose 50% is a solution for fluid replenishment and caloric supply. The insert indicates, . as a source of water and calories .
During a review of the facility's policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Storage of Medications undated, The P&P indicated, . Infusion therapy products' expiration dates and storage conditions are monitored by the consultant pharmacist and pharmacy staff during inspection and consultation times .
During a review of the facility's policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Emergency Pharmacy Service and Emergency Kits, undated, the P&P indicated . The kits are checked at least every thirty days for completeness and expiration dating of the contents .
2. During a concurrent observation and interview on 2/7/22, at 3:19 p.m., with LVN 10, during the medication cart check on B wing hallway, a bottle of OTC (over the counter) Docusate (stool softener) 250 mg (approximately 100 softgels) expired on 1/22 and one bottle of Nystatin (anti-fungal medication) powder expired on 4/20 were stored inside the medication cart. The Nystatin powder was wrapped in a disposable latex glove, with no patient identifier. LVN 10 confirmed the observation. LVN 10 stated, expired medications were less effective when administered to resident. LVN 10 stated licensed nurses were supposed to check for medication expiration date on a regular basis. LVN 10 stated, the Nystatin powder should have a patient identifier to avoid misuse of medication.
During a phone interview on 2/14/21, at 1:40 p.m., with the CP, CP stated, expired medications should not be given to a resident because the medication may not be effective. CP stated, administering expired medication was considered as medication error.
During an interview on 2/14/22, at 5:20 p.m., with the DON, DON stated nurses should be checking expiration date and returning the expired medication to pharmacy. DON stated administration of expired medications could cause the medication to lose their effectiveness.
During a review of the facility's P&P titled, Storage of Medications undated, the P&P indicated, . Infusion therapy products' expiration dates and storage conditions are monitored by the consultant pharmacist and pharmacy staff during inspection and consultation times .
3. During a review of Resident 188's AR, dated 2/8/22, the AR indicated Resident 188 was an [AGE] year old female who was admitted to the facility on [DATE] with diagnoses which included . Asthma (disease affecting the lungs, causing shortness of breath) .
During a concurrent observation and interview on 2/7/22, at 3:25 p.m., with LVN 10, during the medication cart check on B wing hallway, Budesonide-Formoterol 80-4.5 mcg (microgram, unit of measurement) for Resident 188 was stored outside of the manufacturer's foil tray. The Budesonide-Formoterol 80-4.5 mcg was observed without a date of first use or expiration date documented on the device and without patient identifier. LVN 10 confirmed the observation. LVN 10 stated, she was unable to determine whether the inhaler was expired. LVN 10 stated, the inhaler should have an open date and disposed by date. LVN 10 stated, the inhaler should have a patient identifier to avoid misuse of medication. LVN 10 stated, Resident 188's breathing intervention could be affected if the inhaler was expired.
During a phone interview on 2/14/21, at 1:45 p.m., with the CP, CP stated, expired medications should not be given to a resident because the medication may not be effective. CP stated, administering expired medication was considered as medication error.
During an interview on 2/14/22, at 5:25 p.m., with DON, DON stated, nurses should be checking expiration date and returning the expired medication to pharmacy. DON stated, administration of expired medications could cause the medication to lose their effectiveness.
During a review of Resident 188's Physician Order (PO), dated 1/21/22, the PO indicated, . [Brand Name] 80-4.5 MCG/ACT (Budesonide-Formoterol Fumarate) 2 puff inhale orally two times a day related to OTHER ASTHMA .
During a review of the facility's P&P titled, General Procedures To Follow For All Medications, undated, the P&P indicated, . Medications are administered as prescribed in accordance with good nursing principles and practices .
During a review of the professional reference titled, Lexicomp indicated, . Budesonide-Formoterol Fumarate . Maintenance treatment of airflow obstruction in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD, group of lung diseases that block airflow and make it difficult to breath), including chronic bronchitis and/or emphysema; to reduce COPD exacerbations .
4. During a review of Resident 57's AR, dated 2/8/22, the AR indicated Resident 57 was a [AGE] year old male who was admitted to the facility on [DATE] with diagnoses which included . Hypertensive Heart Disease Without Heart Failure . Vitamin Deficiency . Diabetes Mellitus (a disorder in which blood sugar or glucose levels are abnormally high) .
During an observation on 2/7/22, at 4:44 p.m., with LVN 7, in the D wing hallway, LVN 7 was doing medication pass (administration). LVN 7 obtained the blood glucose sample from Resident 57's left hand second finger. LVN 7 stated the blood sugar was 299 mg/dl (milligrams per deciliter- unit of measure) and she would call the doctor for an order. LVN made a phone call. LVN 7 stated, the doctor instructed her to give 12 units (unit of measurement) of Insulin Lispro. LVN 7 was observed withdrawing 12 units of Insulin Lispro from the vial that did not have an expiration date, and injecting the 12 units of Insulin Lispro subcutaneously (administer under the skin) to Resident 57's left lower abdominal area.
During a concurrent interview and observation on 2/7/22, at 4:52 p.m., with LVN 2, in the A wing hallway, LVN 2 stated, the vial of Insulin Lispro did not have a label to indicate when to discard the vial. LVN acknowledged she was unable to determine whether the insulin was expired. LVN 2 stated, the insulin vial should have an open date and disposed by date. LVN 2 stated, Resident 57's blood sugar level could be affected if the insulin was expired.
During a review of Resident 57's Physician's Phone Order dated 1/26/22, the Physician's Phone Order indicated, . [Brand Name] Solution 100 UNIT/ML (Insulin Lispro) Inject 10 unit subcutaneously before meals related to TYPE 2 DIABETES MELLITUS WITHOUT COMPLICATIONS . Hold if blood sugar less than 160. Call MD if BS greater than 250 or less than 60 .
During a concurrent phone interview and record review on 2/14/22, at 1:36 p.m., with CP, Resident 57's Medical Record (MR), dated 2/14/21 was reviewed. CP stated, Insulin Lispro vial should have an open and expiration date. CP stated, expired insulin could result to a less desired effect for Resident 57.
During an interview on 2/14/22, at 5:20 p.m., with DON, DON stated, she expects nursing staff to follow manufacturer's specification for Insulin Lispro. DON stated, nurses should indicate the open and expiration date for Insulin Lispro in the vial. DON stated, expired insulin could result to uncontrolled blood sugar for Resident 57.
During a review of a professional reference review Lexicomp, the manufacturer instructions for Lispro Insulin indicated, . should be stored at room temperatures <30°C (<86°F) and used within 28 days .
During a review of the facility's P&P titled, General Procedures To Follow For All Medications, undated, the P&P indicated, . Medications are administered as prescribed in accordance with good nursing principles and practices .
5. During an observation on 2/11/22, at 10:50 a.m., on the B Wing, Registered Nurse (RN) 1 donned (put on) a gown to enter room B5. The medication cart was located across the hall against the wall, the medication cart drawers was facing the hall. RN 1 entered room B5 and closed the door behind her. The medication cart was unlocked and unattended.
During a concurrent observation and interview on 2/11/22, at 10:53 a.m., in the B wing hallway, the Administrator in Training (AIT) walked by the medication cart and pushed the locking mechanism in place, locking the cart. AIT stated, the medication cart was unlocked and confirmed locking the cart. AIT stated, the cart should have been locked. AIT stated, the medication cart was not visible by RN 1 as the door to room B5 was closed.
During an interview on 2/11/22, at 10:58 a.m., with RN 1, RN 1 stated, when leaving the medication cart, the medication cart should always be locked. RN 1 stated, it was important to keep the medication cart locked so residents did not have access to medications they were not supposed to have. RN 1 stated, medications contained in cart were for different types of medical conditions. RN 1 stated, leaving the medication cart open could allow unauthorized people could have access to medications and the consequences could be adverse effects from an upset stomach to death. RN 1 stated he thought he locked the medication cart. RN 1 stated, he did not have visualization of the cart while in room B5 with the door closed.
During an interview on 2/14/22, at 11:22 a.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), the DON stated, medication cart's should be locked when unattended to prevent unauthorized access.
During a review of the facility's policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Policy and Procedures for Pharmaceutical Services ., undated, the (P&P) indicated, . Z. Drugs and Biologicals, Policy: Drugs and biologicals will be stored in a safe, secure and orderly fashion, and will be accessible only to licensed nursing or pharmacy personnel. Procedures . 4. Medication rooms or drug storage areas will be locked or attended by persons with authorized access .