Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake

1900 WEBBER STREET, WHITE BEAR LAKE, MN 55110 (651) 232-1818
Non profit - Corporation 138 Beds Independent Data: November 2025
Trust Grade
63/100
#101 of 337 in MN
Last Inspection: November 2024

Within standard 12-15 month inspection cycle. Federal law requires annual inspections.

Overview

Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake has a Trust Grade of C+, which means it is considered decent and slightly above average among nursing homes. It ranks #101 out of 337 facilities in Minnesota, placing it in the top half, and #5 out of 27 in Ramsey County, indicating only a handful of local options are better. Unfortunately, the facility is worsening, with issues increasing from 4 in 2023 to 16 in 2024. Staffing is a strong point, with a perfect 5/5 star rating and a turnover rate of 40%, slightly below the state average, which suggests that staff are experienced and familiar with the residents. However, the facility has faced $19,645 in fines, which is concerning as it reflects average compliance problems. In terms of specific incidents, the care center failed to perform comprehensive skin assessments for a resident, leading to harm from pressure ulcers. Additionally, there were concerns about food safety, as the facility did not properly store or label food, risking foodborne illness for many residents. Lastly, the facility did not provide updated vaccines to several residents according to CDC guidelines, which could impact the health of the entire resident population. Overall, while there are some significant strengths in staffing, the recent issues highlight areas needing improvement.

Trust Score
C+
63/100
In Minnesota
#101/337
Top 29%
Safety Record
Moderate
Needs review
Inspections
Getting Worse
4 → 16 violations
Staff Stability
○ Average
40% turnover. Near Minnesota's 48% average. Typical for the industry.
Penalties
✓ Good
$19,645 in fines. Lower than most Minnesota facilities. Relatively clean record.
Skilled Nurses
✓ Good
Each resident gets 69 minutes of Registered Nurse (RN) attention daily — more than 97% of Minnesota nursing homes. RNs are the most trained staff who catch health problems before they become serious.
Violations
⚠ Watch
23 deficiencies on record. Higher than average. Multiple issues found across inspections.
★★★★☆
4.0
Overall Rating
★★★★★
5.0
Staff Levels
★★★☆☆
3.0
Care Quality
★★★☆☆
3.0
Inspection Score
Stable
2023: 4 issues
2024: 16 issues

The Good

  • 5-Star Staffing Rating · Excellent nurse staffing levels
  • Full Sprinkler Coverage · Fire safety systems throughout facility
  • No fines on record
  • Staff turnover below average (40%)

    8 points below Minnesota average of 48%

Facility shows strength in staffing levels, fire safety.

The Bad

Staff Turnover: 40%

Near Minnesota avg (46%)

Typical for the industry

Federal Fines: $19,645

Below median ($33,413)

Minor penalties assessed

The Ugly 23 deficiencies on record

1 actual harm
Nov 2024 5 deficiencies
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Deficiency F0554 (Tag F0554)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ensure proper self-administration of insulin for 1 ...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ensure proper self-administration of insulin for 1 or 1 resident (R87) reviewed for self-administration of medications (SAM). Findings include: R87's quarterly minimum data set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicated R87 was cognitively intact, rejection of care behavior not exhibited, required staff supervision, and set up for bathing and eating, and was independent with all other activities of daily living (ADLs) and mobility. The MDS indicated R87 had impaired vision, and received insulin and opioids. R87's diagnoses included type 2 diabetes, age-related cataract, need for assistance with personal care, depression and anxiety. R87's care plan last revised 11/20/24, indicated R87 was non-compliant with medications, treatments, lab work and typically rejected care on a daily basis. The care plan further indicated, Resident has been assessed by interdisciplinary care plan team to be capable of self-administration. The care plan indicated R87 received high risk medications identified as insulin and opioids and instructed administration of medications per doctor's order. R87's November 2024 medication administration record (MAR) indicated R87's medication orders included the following: -Calcium acetate 667 mg, two tabs three times a day with meals. -Insulin glargine-yfgn insulin pen; 100 unit/ml (3ml)-administer 9 units at Bedtime; subcutaneous (SQ), ok to keep in room and self-administer. -insulin lispro solution; 100 unit/ml; administer per sliding scale (SS) based on blood sugar (BS), SQ, three times a day with meals (ok to keep in room and self-administer): If BS is 70-149, give 0 units If BS is 150-199, give 2 units If BS is 200-249, give 4 units If BS is 250-299, give 6 units If BS is 300-349, give 8 units If BS is 350-399, give 10 units If BS is 400-450, give 12 units If BS greater than 450, call doctor. -Dexcom G7 Sensor (blood-glucose sensor) device, change every 10 days. -Okay to keep in room and self-administer insulins. Has Dexcom for blood sugar checks. R87's Self-Administration of Medication observation assessment dated [DATE], indicated R87 wanted to self-administer insulin glargine 9 units at bedtime and insulin lispro SS three times a day. The SAM assessment further indicated R87 had a history of non-compliance with medications or other treatments and wore a Dexcom monitor. The SAM indicated R87 was provided teaching and was determined safe for insulin administration and in-room storage. During observation and interview on 11/18/24 at 6:10 p.m., R87 had insulin pens, alcohol wipes and a sharps container in her room. R87 stated she stored and administered her own insulin. R87 also had a medicine cup which contained 2 big blue and white pills sitting on her table in front of her and stated she did not know what they were, but she was supposed to take them, but they were hard to swallow. R87 further stated she had visual impairment, could not read small print, and required cataract surgery. R87 stated she monitored her own blood sugar using an app on her phone connected to the Dexcom monitor she wore on her arm. During interview on 11/20/24 at 8:19 a.m., registered nurse (RN)-B stated R87 was supposed to monitor her own BS and administer her own insulin. RN-B stated all other medications were supplied by the nurse but R87 often refused medications when offered by nurses. During observation and interview on 11/20/24 at 8:47 a.m., R87 checked her phone app and showed it indicated her BS was 206. R87 stated per the SS, she needed to administer 4 units of the short acting insulin. R87 picked up the lispro pen, attached a needle, turned the dosage four clicks, used the flashlight on her phone to look at the dial to confirm it was set to 4 units, used an alcohol wipe to prepare her abdomen and administered the insulin. R87 did not prime the insulin pen. R87 stated she was provided education on and then observed self-administration of insulin and that she never primed her pens. R87 stated not thinking priming was necessary with this pen since the nurses don't do it. During interview on 11/21/24 at 8:20 a.m., RN-C stated R87 often declined medications, but she was assessed for safe insulin self-administration. RN-C stated R87 would have been educated and performed a return demonstration when assessed for SAM. RN-C stated expectation that R87 was assessed appropriately and that she would be priming the insulin pen prior to administration. RN-C stated R87 would not be receiving the correct amount of insulin if the pen was not primed. During interview on 11/21/24 at 9:40 a.m., director of nursing (DON) stated residents were educated and assessed with return demonstration for determination of safe SAM. DON stated expectation R87 would be priming the insulin pen prior to admission to ensure she received the proper dosage. Facility policy Self-Administration of Medications dated 8/31/23, indicated residents had the right to SAM if determined to be clinically appropriate and safe to do so. The policy further indicated the resident should have the ability to correctly identify their medications and the indications for their use. Residents would be assessed for ability to swallow without difficulty and any changes in ability to SAM safely would prompt further review. Facility policy on priming insulin pens was requested but not received. Per standard nursing practice and manufactures instructions, insulin pens/needles should be primed with 2 units prior to each injection.
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

ADL Care (Tag F0677)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review the facility failed to ensure proper nail care for 1 of 1 resident (R95) revi...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review the facility failed to ensure proper nail care for 1 of 1 resident (R95) reviewed for activities of daily living. Findings include: R95's quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicated moderately impaired cognition, diagnoses of dementia, need for assistance with personal care, and there were no rejection of care behaviors noted. It further indicated R95 required assistance with personal hygiene. R95's care plan dated 1/25/2024, indicated R95 needed assistance with dressing, personal hygiene, and bathing due to lumbar stenosis. It further indicated an intervention to assist in handing him a soapy wash cloth and cue to wash face, hands, arms, and torso as able during weekly bath. Staff should also wash resident's hair, back, peri area, and legs during weekly bath and trim his nails as needed. R95's progress notes (11/1/24-11/19/24), lacked documentation R95's fingernails had been cut or that he had refused to have them cut. During observation on 11/18/24 at 5:51 p.m., R95 was sitting in his room in his wheelchair watching television (TV). The fingernails on his left hand were approximately 1 inch long and the thumb, middle finger and pinky on his right hand were also approximately 1 inch long. R95 stated he doesn't like his nails long and wanted them cut. During observation on 11/19 24 at 1:00 p.m., R95 was sitting in his room in his wheelchair, watching TV. The fingernails on his left hand were approximately 1 inch long and the thumb, middle finger and pinky on his right hand were also approximately 1 inch long. During interview on 11/19/24 at 2:19 p.m. nursing assistant (NA)-B stated NA's were responsible for cutting the residents nails unless the resident was diabetic. If the resident was diabetic or their nails were too thick, then the nurses were responsible for cutting them. It was completed once a week, usually on bath day. During interview on 11/19/24 at 3:06 p.m. NA-C stated nurses were responsible for cutting residents nails, they do skin assessments on the residents bath day and it's their responsibility to look at their skin and nails. During interview on 11/19/24 at 3:15 p.m. registered nurse (RN)-A stated the nurses were responsible for cutting the residents nails if they are diabetic. NA's can cut the residents nails who are not diabetic but there's more responsibility on the nurse to make sure it get's done. The residents nails are clipped once a week typically on their shower day and it should be documented in a progress note. There was no specific spot to document it unless someone added it on the weekly skin assessment. Refusals should be documented. RN-A also verified R95's nails were long and more then a few weeks growth and stated his nails should've been cut. During interview on 11/21/24 at 10:22 a.m., the director of nursing (DON) stated the NA's were responsible for cutting the residents nails who were not diabetic and the nurse were responsible for cutting the residents nails who were diabetic. She further stated it should be done weekly along with skin checks and usually done on the residents bath day. She would expect it to be documented in the progress notes, including refusals which would prompt it to be care planned. The facility's policy on activities of daily living (ADL) dated June of 2021, indicated residents unable to carry out ADLs independently will receive the services necessary to maintain good nutrition, grooming, personal hygiene, elimination, communication and mobility.
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Medication Errors (Tag F0758)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and document review, the facility failed to ensure a gradual dose reduction (GDR) was attempted for 1 of 1 re...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and document review, the facility failed to ensure a gradual dose reduction (GDR) was attempted for 1 of 1 resident (R52) reviewed for the use of psychotropic medications. Findings include: R52 ' s Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicated they had no cognitive impairment and did not reject cares. R52 reported no signs or symptoms of feeling down, depressed, or hopeless. R52 scored a zero on scale for depression or anxiety. R52 stated did not hallucinate or had delusions. R52 ' s physician orders included the following medications for anxiety: -starting on 7/21/23, Bupropion HCL 100 milligrams (mg) tablet daily by mouth -starting on 7/21/23 Duloxetine Hydrochloride 30 mg coated pellets capsules daily by mouth R52 ' s medical record lacked indication R52 had a GDR attempted for bupropion or Duloxetine since R52 ' s admission to the facility in July 2023. During an interview on 11/21/24 at 12:42 p.m., the consultant pharmacist (CP) stated due to an informational technology (IT) glitch, the monthly reviews were incorrectly sent. The facility had not received the recommendations for the months of July-November of 2024. The CP verified R52 ' s pharmacy reviews for the months August 2024 -October 2024 requested a GDR to be completed for R52 ' s prescribed bupropion and duloxetine. During an interview on 11/21/24 at 2:20 p.m., the director of nursing (DON) stated the CP sent any recommendations to the facility to review and send to the providers. DON stated if residents had no recommendations, they were on a list that was also sent. DON verified R52 was not on the list of residents who had no recommendations for August 2024- October 2024. DON stated the monthly reviews requesting R52 ' s GDR had not been received until they were requested by surveyor on 11/21/24 in the afternoon. DON further stated the facility did not keep track of monthly reviews or resident GDRs were sent to the CP monthly directly from the EMR and then it was up to the CP to send the information back. During a follow up interview on 11/22/24 at 9:24 a.m., the consulting pharmacist (CP) stated R52 ' s GDR had not been attempted. It was CP stated within the first year of admission, the process for the GDR had protocols and parameters, and to be attempted twice within one year of admission, attempt a GDR in two separate quarters, one month apart. To ensure the time frame, the CP entered in the current updated documentation electronically, then went to quality assurance performance improvement (QAPI) and confirmed the orders and recommendations. The facility policy Psychotropic Medication Use dated 8/24/2017, directed the facility to begin a GDR within the first year in which a resident is admitted with or is newly prescribed a scheduled psychotropic medication. GDR is attempted in two separate quarters (with at least one month between the attempts), unless clinically contraindicated and documented by the medical provider. Based on interview and document review, the facility failed to ensure a discussion of risks, benefits and potential side effects occurred and understood by the resident or resident representative for 1 of 1 residents (105) reviewed for unnecessary medications who received Depakote for indication outside the drug classification. Findings include: R105 admission minimum data set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicated R105 had severe cognitive impairment, exhibited physical and verbal behaviors towards others, and received antipsychotic and antidepressant medications. R105's diagnoses included restlessness and agitation, dementia with behavioral disturbance, and Alzheimer's disease. R105's care plan revised 11/18/24, indicated R105 used high risk medications including antipsychotics, hypnotics, and antidepressants for the diagnosis of dementia with behaviors. The care plan further indicated R105 was at risk for falls. The care plan instructed pharmacist medication review for fall risk and medication adjustments and psychiatry visits and medication reviews. The care plan further instructed to monitor for target behaviors and side effects of psychotropic medications as ordered. R105's November 2024 medication administration record (MAR) indicated provider orders including: -Depakote tablet, delayed release; 125 mg; 1 tab; twice a day for restlessness and agitation -Depakote tablet, delayed release; 250 mg; 1 tab; at bedtime for restlessness and agitation R105's admission assessment dated [DATE], indicated R105 had behavioral symptoms and had a history of falls. R105's associated clinic of psychology (ACP) visit note dated 10/30/24, identified Depakote as one of R105's current psychotropic medications. R105's electronic health record (EHR) lacked evidence of a Consent for Use of Psychotropic Medication for Depakote. During interview on 11/21/24 at 10:20 a.m., registered nurse (RN)-C stated a consent for psychotropic medication use should be completed upon admission if the resident was admitted on a psychotropic medication, with any changes in dosages or when started on a new psychotropic. RN-C stated the consent was used to inform residents or family members of the risks, benefits and possible side effects of the medication. RN-C confirmed R105 did not have a consent completed for the Depakote. On 11/21/24 at 10:46 a.m., attempted to contact ACP-NP via phone call with no answer. Voicemail left and email sent. Per email response on 11/22/24 at 5:13 a.m., ACP nurse practitioner (ACP-NP) stated R105 was receiving Depakote (an antiepileptic/or antimanic) for agitation and aggression, but was not an antipsychotic. In any event it is considered a psychotropic medication. ACP-NP further stated expectation for facility to follow policies and procedures regarding the use of psychotropic medications. During interview on 11/21/24 at 2:07 p.m., director of nursing (DON) stated was not aware that Depakote was considered a psychotropic, but if being used out of class would expect a consent for use to be completed. R105's family should be informed of the risks, benefits and potential side effects of the medication and allowed to make an informed decision on its use. Facility policy Psychotropic Medication Use dated 9/7/23, indicated target behaviors and side effects must be identified and monitored when psychotropic medications were ordered and informed consent for the use must be obtained.
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Unnecessary Medications (Tag F0759)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and document review the facility failed to ensure insulin was administered in accordance with p...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and document review the facility failed to ensure insulin was administered in accordance with professional standards of practice for 2 of 3 residents (R100, R51) observed for medication administration. This constituted three (3) errors out of 33 opportunities for a medication error rate of 9.09 % (percent). Findings include: R100's quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], identified she could usually understand others and could be understood. Required partial/moderate assistance with hygiene and diagnoses included diabetes mellitus. R100 received insulin injections seven out of seven days in the lookback period. R100's care plan dated 9/6/24, identified an alteration in nutrition due to type two diabetes mellitus and elevated glucose levels. Interventions included to monitor blood glucose. R100's physician orders included: - 9/19/24, check blood glucose four times a day. - 10/2/24, Lantus (long acting) insulin 24 units subcutaneous (SQ) every morning, hold if blood glucose less than 110. R100's Annual Comprehensive Nursing Home visit dated 10/16/24, identified blood glucose fluctuated between 94 to 371, check blood sugar results four times per day (QID) and continue current insulin orders. During an observation and interview on 11/19/24 at 8:50 a.m., licensed practical nurse (LPN)-B took R100's insulin pen out of the medication cart, attached the needle and dialed up the prescribed dosage of 24 units. LPN-B had not primed the needle and when asked stated she only needed to dial up the prescribed 24 units. LPN-B then administered the insulin without priming the needle, which could potentially have been a subtherapuetic dosage. R51's quarterly MDS dated [DATE], identified intact cognition and was independent with personal hygiene. Diagnoses included type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic nephropathy (uncontrolled kidney complications). R51 received insulin injections seven out of seven days in the lookback period. R51's care plan dated 9/10/24, identified an alteration in endocrine function secondary to diagnoses of diabetes mellitus. Interventions included to administer insulin as ordered. R51's physician orders dated 11/15/24, included: - Check blood glucose four times a day via Dexcom (continuous blood sugar monitor). - Lantus insulin 37 units SQ every morning. - Novolog (rapid acting) insulin 12 units SQ three times daily before meals. R51's Annual Comprehensive Nursing Home visit dated 10/16/24, identified blood glucose was elevated in the late afternoons and Lantus was increased to 37 units. During an observation and interview on 11/20/24, at 8:04 a.m., LPN-A took R51's Lantus insulin pen out of the medication cart, attached the needle and dialed up the pescribed 37 units. LPN-A had not primed the needle and insulin was not observed to come out of the tip of the needle. Next LPN-A took the Novolog insulin pen out of the medication cart, attached the needle and dialed up the prescribed 12 units. When asked if the needles needed to be primed, LPN-A stated only needed to dial up the prescribed units. LPN-A stated he did not think the pen needles needed to be primed before each use. LPN-A then administered the insulins without priming the needle, which could potentially have been subtherapuetic dosages. During an interview on 11/20/24 at 8:19 a.m., LPN-C stated with each administration, insulin pen needles needed to be primed first, then dial up the prescribed dosage. During an interview on 11/20/24 at 2:28 p.m., the director of nursing (DON) stated all insulin pens were expected to be primed with insulin prior to the prescribed dosage to ensure the needles worked and the correct dosage was delivered. During an email communication on 11/21/24 at 2:19 p.m., the DON identified the facility lacked a specific insulin pen policy or procedure and would follow manufacturer's instructions. Lantus insulin pen manufacturer's instructions dated 2022, identified step 3 was to perform a safety test: - Dial a test dose of 2 units. - Hold pen with the needle pointing up and lightly tap the insulin reservoir so the air bubbles rise to the top of the needle. This will help get the most accurate dose. - Press the injection button all the way in and check to see that insulin comes out of the needle. The dial will automatically go back to zero as the test is performed. - If no insulin comes out, repeat the test 2 more times. If there is still no insulin coming out, use a new needle and do the safety test again. Novolog insulin pen manufacturer's instructions dated 6/2021, identified to always test the insulin flow: - Select 2 units and press the dose button until the dose counter shows 0. The insulin flow test is complete when you see insulin squirt and there is no longer a gap between the piston rod head and the piston.
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Infection Control (Tag F0880)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** R364's admission Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], identified intact cognition, assistance with toileting and dressing, set ...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** R364's admission Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], identified intact cognition, assistance with toileting and dressing, set up for daily hygiene activities. Diagnoses included sepsis (acute system infection) urinary tract infection from extended spectrum beta lactamase (ESBL) resistance (multidrug resistant organism). R364's care plan dated 11/11/24, indicated R364 required contact precautions ESBL and directed staff to implement precautions according to facility protocol. R364's provider and nursing order dated 11/11/24, identified R364 required contact precautions. An observation on 11/18/24, a sign was posted outside R364's room. The sign stated, Contact Precautions and directed anyone who entered the room to perform hand hygiene, don a gown and gloves. A cart was outside of R364's room that contained isolation gowns and gloves. An observation on 11/19/24 at 1:58 p.m., a sign was posted outside R364's room. The sign stated, Contact Precautions and directed anyone who entered the room to perform hand hygiene, don a gown and gloves. A cart was outside of R364's room that contained isolation gowns and gloves. The physical therapist assistant (PTA) knocked on door, introduced self, performed hand hygiene, and foamed hands. PTA did not don a gown or gloves before entering R364's room. The PTA went to the R364 sitting in chair and placed a gait belt (a belt that goes around waist to assist with stability) resident took walker, placed it in front of him and stood. PTA and R364 walked down hallway to rehab area, for therapy. The PTA foamed hands before entering room, did not don gloves or gown before entering R364 room, the PTA assisted R364 to chair. During an interview on 11/19/24 at 2:25 p.m., the PTA verified they did not don a gown or gloves as the indicated. The PTA further stated with contact precautions, gown and gloves should be worn. The rationale for using contact precautions for R364 had EBSL. During interview on 11/21/24 at 12:05 p.m., with infection preventionist (IP) stated the expectation of hand hygiene with personal cares. Staff are expected to clean hands and change gloves between clean and dirty personal cares. The staff are to follow contact precautions per facility policy on wearing gown and gloves when entering resident's room. The facility's Hand Hygiene policy dated 6/2017, identified infection prevention began with basic hand hygiene; proper hand hygiene practices should be followed to reduce the spread of potentially deadly germs and reduce the risk of healthcare provide colonization caused by germs acquired from the residents. Hand hygiene should be performed with soap and water before and after assisting a resident with toileting. The policy lacked instructions for soiled gloves. Based on observation, interview and document review the facility failed to follow infection control standards of practice for incontinence cares and/or contact precautions for 2 of 2 residents (R40 and R364) reviewed for activities of daily living (ADLs) Findings include: R40's quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], identified intact cognition, dependent on staff for toileting, and was always incontinent of bowel and bladder. Diagnoses included dementia. R40's care plan dated 9/12/24, lacked a history of bladder inflammation, and identified she had incontinence related to impaired mobility, left (L) hemiparesis (paralysis on one side) due to history of CVA (stroke). Interventions included to check resident every two hours and as needed for incontinence and provide assist of one to change brief and provide perineal hygiene. Additionally, keep the call light within reach. R40's admission to the facility orders dated 1/26/24, identified a prescription for Keflex (antibiotic) 500 milligrams twice daily for four days for bladder inflammation (common cause of bladder inflammation is bacteria, such as E. coli, that enters the urethra and multiplies in the bladder). During an interview on 11/18/24 at 12:13 p.m., R40 stated she thought she needed to be changed. She pushed her call light button to alert staff. During an observation on 11/18/24 at 12:36 p.m., nursing assistant (NA)-A entered the room, R40 said she went potty and needed to be changed. NA-A put gloves on, pulled the bed sheet down and unfastened R40's brief. NA-A wiped the front of R40's groin with a wipe, tucked the wipe between R40's legs and instructed R40 to turn on her side. Once R40 was in a side-lying position, NA-A used wipes to clean up a medium soft incontinent bowel movement. With the soiled gloves still on, NA-A grabbed a tube of skin barrier cream and applied the cream to R40's backside, picked up a new brief, tucked the new brief under R40's hips, assisted her to turn on to a back-lying position, cleaned the front of R40's groin with a wipe and applied skin barrier cream, still with the same soiled gloves on, removed the soiled brief, put it in the garbage, picked up R40's call light cord with the same soiled gloves to move it out of the way and assisted R40 to a side-lying position again to finish adjusting the brief. When asked if NA-A could get more gloves, she removed the soiled gloves and applied new ones without performing hand hygiene between glove usage. During a follow up interview on 11/18/24 at 12:50 p.m., when NA-A was asked about education on hand hygiene use and if gloves should be changed immediately after being soiled, she replied she would do that going forward. NA-A agreed she touched the barrier cream bottle, R40's front groin area and call light cord with gloves soiled with bowel movement.
Feb 2024 11 deficiencies 1 Harm
SERIOUS (G)

Actual Harm - a resident was hurt due to facility failures

Pressure Ulcer Prevention (Tag F0686)

A resident was harmed · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to perform comprehensive skin assessments and implemen...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to perform comprehensive skin assessments and implement interventions to promote healing and reduce the risk for further pressure ulcer development for 1 of 1 resident (R100) reviewed for pressure ulcers. This resulted in harm for R100. Findings include: A stage one pressure injury is intact skin with a localized area of redness that is non-blanchable (does not turn white when pressed). A stage two pressure ulcer is partial thickness loss of the skin with exposed dermis, presenting as a shallow open ulcer. A stage three pressure ulcer is full thickness loss of the skin in which subcutaneous fat may be visible. Additionally, slough (non-viable yellow, tan, gray, green or brown tissue; usually moist, can be soft, stringy and mucinous in texture) or eschar (dead or devitalized tissue that is hard or soft in texture; usually black, brown, or tan in color, and may appear scab-like) may be visible but does not obscure the depth of the tissue loss. A stage four pressure ulcer is full thickness loss of the skin and tissue loss with exposed or directly palpable fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage or bone in the ulcer. Slough and or eschar may be visible on some parts of the wound bed. Undermining and or tunneling often occur. If slough or eschar obscures the wound bed, it is an unstageable pressure ulcer. An unstageable pressure ulcer is obscured full thickness skin and tissue loss in which the extent of tissue damage within the ulcer cannot be confirmed because the wound bed is obscured by slough or eschar. If slough or eschar is removed, a stage three or stage four pressure ulcer will be revealed. If the anatomical depth of the tissue damage involved can be determined, then reclassified stage should be assigned. A deep tissue pressure injury (DTPI) is intact skin with localized area of persistent non blanchable deep red, maroon, purple discoloration due to damage of underlying soft tissue. The area may be preceded by tissue that is painful, firm, mushy, boggy, warmer or cooler as compared to adjacent tissue. This injury results from intense and or prolonged pressure and shear forces at the bone-muscle interface. The wound may evolve rapidly to reveal the actual extent of tissue injury, or may resolve without tissue loss. If necrotic tissue, subcutaneous tissue (deepest layer of skin), granulation tissue (new connective tissue), fascia (connective tissue), muscle or other underlying structures are visible, this indicates a full thickness pressure ulcer. Once a deep tissue injury opens to an ulcer, reclassify the ulcer into the appropriate stage. R100's admission Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicated intact cognition, did not reject care, was dependent on staff for toileting, had lower extremity range of motion impairment on one side, required substantial assistance with bathing and showering, was independent with rolling left and right, had an indwelling catheter, was always incontinent of bowel, had a stage one or greater pressure ulcer, was at risk of developing pressure ulcers, had one stage one pressure ulcer, did not have other skin problems which included moisture associated skin damage (MASD), open lesions other than ulcers, rashes, cuts, surgical wounds, burns, and skin tears. Skin treatments indicated R100 had a pressure reducing bed, application of a nonsurgical dressing other than to feet. R100's Face Sheet indicated R100 admitted to the facility on [DATE], and had the following diagnoses: multiple sclerosis (a condition affecting the central nervous system that can cause muscle weakness, vision changes, numbness, and memory issues), adult failure to thrive, major depressive disorder, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and neuromuscular dysfunction of the bladder. R100's care area assessment (CAA) dated 1/12/24 indicated R100 had multiple sclerosis, weakness, failure to thrive and staff assisted R100 with activities of daily living, transfers, mobility, and toileting. The CAA was edited on 1/18/24, and indicated R100 was admitted with redness to her peri area, and had a dressing to her coccyx on admission and 1/10/24 nursing note indicated a stage 1 pressure ulcer to the left heel. R100's care plan dated 1/7/24, indicated a self care deficit and R100 required 1 to 2 assist with bed mobility, bathing, and transfers. R100's care plan dated 1/7/24, indicated R100 was at risk for alteration of skin due to her disease process and her goal indicated she would not develop any skin alterations. R100's interventions were: barrier cream applied to dry areas as needed. The care plan was later revised on 2/14/24, to include the following interventions: Braden skin risk evaluations completed on admission and every week for four weeks, then quarterly, annually, and with any significant change, nursing assistants to observe skin and report any abnormalities to the nurse, air mattress placed on the bed, heel protectors in place to protect heels while in bed, may choose to have the head of bed at the lowest elevation as possible to reduce the pressure on bottom, may refuse treatments and interventions, will allow therapy to see as appropriate to assist in wound healing, will be involved in the treatment process, will be monitored for properly fitting footwear and pressure reduction to heels. Will have a podiatrist as appropriate see me if issues, will be reminded to reposition every 2 hours, will have assistance in repositioning every two hours to offload the pressure areas, will maintain good skin hygiene and skin will be moisturized if I have dry skin as needed, my elimination of waste will be addressed in the toileting section of the care plan, my heels will be floated while in bed, my labs and weight will be monitored as ordered, my pain will be controlled as ordered, pressure redistributing mattress is in place on my bed and I have a cushion for my chair, proper notifications will be made if my wounds change, the staff will provide me with adequate nutrition and hydration. Nutritional supplements and vitamins as ordered, the staff will use a lift sheet to move me in bed as needed. R100's care plan dated 2/13/24, indicated R100 had a nutrition goal R100's skin would improve and or heal and approaches included honoring likes and dislikes, and supplements as ordered. R100's care sheet indicated R100 had an air mattress, report skin findings to the nurse, required assist of 1 for bed mobility, was to be turned and repositioned in bed as tolerated and had a buttocks wound. R100's physician orders indicated the following orders: • 1/6/24: Wound care: change dressing every Monday, Wednesday, Friday, and as needed for drainage and saturation. Gently remove previous dressing. Hold skin down as you remove the dressing to prevent further skin tearing and or soak off with NS. Cleanse with wound cleanser; pat skin dry. Protect and treat apply sacral Mepilex silicone foam dressing. Pressure injury prevention: turn and reposition every 2 hours; right and left turns avoid the back. • 1/8/24: nystatin powder; 100000 unit/gram; apply topically to groin twice daily • 1/9/24: heel pressure relief/floating heels with pillows, boot air fluidized heel aldt std/Z flex heel boot or comparable off loading product. Chair interventions: pressure redistribution seat cushion in place. Keep HOB/Recliner less than 30 degrees, knee [NAME] elevated on bed unless contraindicated by medical condition. Assess skin under all tubes and devices every shift. • 1/9/24: Shower day on Friday a.m., assess skin and document in nursing notes. If any skin concerns noted open an event and notify the physician and family per facility protocol. • 1/10/24: Wound care left heel stage one: apply skin prep and allow to dry daily. • 1/10/24: Braden score 15: assist with turn and repositioning every 2 hours. • 1/11/24: Glucerna 8 ounces daily at bedtime • 1/26/24: Activity: up in the wheelchair for not more than 2 hours twice a day • 1/10/24: blue boots bilateral feet on at all times except cares. • 1/26/24: sacral wound care use Medihoney and foam dressing every day. • 1/30/24: Measure wound to buttocks weekly and document in the progress notes. R100's telephone order dated 1/26/24 from nurse practitioner (NP)-C indicated orders for an occupational therapy evaluation (OT) for a Roho cushion, change bed to an air mattress, up in the wheelchair not more than 2 hours, sacrum wound care use Medihoney foam dressing daily. R100's Hospital admission History and Physical form dated 12/27/23, indicated under the heading, Assessment/Plan R100 had a decubitus ulcer that was present on admission. R100's Hospital documents dated 1/6/24 indicated R100's heels were floated off the end of pillows or with heel offloading boots, additionally R100 was out of bed for meals and turned and repositioned every two hours left to right avoiding the back on 1/5/24. Additionally, R100's groin was reddened from a yeast infection. Additionally a note on page (372 of 430) indicated a perineum bilateral pressure injury and surrounding skin was intact, and had a foam dressing, the wound base was open and had a red/pink base. Additionally, on page 373 of 430 had moisture associated dermatitis to skin folds on bilateral legs that were cleansed and a topical product was applied. The progress notes indicated R100 had a bilateral pressure injury to the perineum and bilateral leg moisture associated dermatitis. R100's After Visit Summary 12/27/23, to 1/6/24, indicated care instructions to change coccyx dressing every Monday, Wednesday, and Friday and as needed for drainage saturation. Gently remove previous dressing. Hold skin down as you remove the dressing to prevent further skin tearing and or soak off with normal saline. Cleanse with wound cleanser. Pat skin dry. Protect and treat apply sacral Mepilex silicone foam dressing. Pressure injury interventions included: turn and reposition every 2 hours right/left turns, avoid back, heel pressure relief floating heels with pillows, boot air fluidized heel adlt Std Z flex heel boot or comparable off-loading product, chair interventions; pressure redistribution seat cushion in place, keep head of bed and recliner less than 30 degrees, knee [NAME] elevated on bed unless contraindicated by medical condition, assess skin under all tubes and devices every shift. R100's certified wound ostomy continence nurse (CWOCN) note dated 12/28/23, (page 31 of 430) indicated R100's coccyx was reddened and non blanchable and had shallow ulcers to the right and left buttocks that measured 1 cm each. Further, the note indicated orders for pressure injury prevention, wound and skin care were on the chart, and a sacral Mepilex was ordered for R100. R100's medication administration record (MAR) dated 2/1/24 to 2/13/24 indicated R100 was to have 8 ounces of Glucerna (a nutritional supplement for people with diabetes) daily at bedtime starting on 1/11/24, however, R100 refused the Glucerna 12 times. Additionally, R100 refused the Glucerna 13 times according to the MAR dated 1/11/24 to 1/31/24. R100's dietician progress note dated 2/13/24, indicated R100 was on a consistent carbohydrate diet with intake of 76-100% for 9 of 13 meals monitored since 1/30/24 and R100 received a Glucerna supplement every day at bedtime to provide nutrition in addition to balanced diet including protein at three meals daily to promote healing of open areas and R100's weight, intake, and skin integrity was monitored. R100's breakfast, lunch intake percentages from 1/6/24, to 2/13/24, indicated the breakfast meal was documented 9 times; 6 times R100 ate 76-100%, once R100 ate 51-75%, and R100 ate 26-50% of breakfast twice. The lunch meal was documented 7 times; 6 times R100 ate 76-100%, and once ate 51 to 75%. R100's Skin Risk Observation with Braden Scale form dated 1/6/24, indicated R100 had the following risk factors for developing a pressure injury: an acute condition, chronic incontinence, diabetes, hypothyroidism, multiple sclerosis required assistance for rolling left and right, lying to sitting, sitting to lying, was always incontinent, had lesions and redness to the peri area, had an unhealed pressure injury that was a stage one or higher to the coccyx. The Braden scale score was 15 and indicated R100 was at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Skin and ulcer treatments included a pressure reducing device for the chair and a turning and repositioning program. Additionally, referral that may be appropriate indicated dietary, occupational therapy (OT), and physical therapy (PT). R100's Skin Risk Observation with Braden Scale form dated 2/9/24, indicated R100 had the following risk factors for developing a pressure injury: cardiovascular disease, decreased range of motion, diabetes, multiple sclerosis, catheter/oxygen/wound vac/ tubing, required partial to moderate assistance to roll left and right, dependent for lying to sitting, and sitting to lying, was always incontinent, had redness to the peri area, had limited mobility, unhealed pressure ulcers to the sacrum, and moisture associated skin damage (MASD). The Braden Scale score was 8, indicating R100 was at very high risk for developing a pressure ulcer. Skin and ulcer treatments included turning and repositioning, and pressure ulcer injury care and under the heading Indicate Care Plan Action Taken indicated to continue current care plan. Additionally, referrals that may be appropriate indicated OT and PT. R100's admission Clinical Documentation note dated 1/6/24, indicated R100 required extensive assistance with bed mobility, was totally dependent on staff for toileting. R100's facility admission Skin Condition/New Wound Assessment form dated January 7, no year, indicated a diagram with instructions to use the list below to identify (number/letter) on the diagram all skin or body concerns. Further, instructions indicated to document size, depth (in, cms), color and drainage. If an ulcer was present, indicate pressure or non-pressure. The list contained a handwritten circle around the numbers 1, 2, and 8. The number 1 listed Pressure next to number 1, the number 2 listed Reddened next to number 2, and number 8 listed wound next to number 8. The posterior (back) view of the diagram indicated a number 1, and a number 8 next to the coccyx region, and to the left of the coccyx region a circle with a number 1, and 8. On the anterior (front) of the diagram was a circle with the numbers 2, and 3 indicating a reddened bruise. Additionally, there was a circled area with a number 2 indicating a reddened area. Additionally, under a heading, Comments indicated the suprapubic site (below the umbilical region) was reddened, there was a small reddened bruise on the left side groin, and a dressing on coccyx and left buttock. The assessment contained no measurements. R100's Braden Scale for Prediction of Pressure Score Risk form dated 1/24/24, indicated a score of 11. The form included an interpretation of the scores and a score range of 10-12 indicated a high risk for development of a pressure ulcer. Interventions included a pressure reducing device for the chair and a pressure reducing device for the bed. Additionally, referrals that may be appropriate included activities, dietary, nursing rehab, and OT, and the care plan action indicated to continue with the current plan of care. R100's Skin Integrity Events that was recorded on 1/30/24, for 1/6/24, indicated R100 admitted with pressure/moisture associated wound to right and left buttocks. R100's transitional care unit (TCU) follow up note dated 1/15/24, indicated nurse practitioner (NP)-C saw R100 who was sitting up in the wheelchair and had fallen the previous Friday and sustained bruising to her back. The note indicated R100 had incontinence associated dermatitis to her bottom and received topical treatment. R100's TCU follow up note dated 1/18/24, indicated R100 had incontinence associated dermatitis to her bottom, and had fallen with bruising to R100's back. R100's TCU follow up note dated 1/23/24, indicated R100 was sitting up in the wheelchair on this day's visit. The note indicated R100 had bruising to the back, and had incontinence associated dermatitis and planned to continue topical treatment. R100's TCU follow up note dated 1/25/24, indicated R100 was sitting up in the wheelchair and had incontinence associated dermatitis. R100's TCU note dated 1/31/24, indicated incontinence associated dermatitis. R100's TCU note dated 2/1/24, indicated R100 had fallen from a lift at the TCU and x-rays were obtained with no acute injury. Additionally, the note indicated R100 had a coccyx ulcer and per reports had moderate slough and eschar. Additionally, the note indicated R100 had incontinence associated dermatitis. R100's TCU follow up note dated 2/13/24, indicated R100 was sitting up in the wheelchair eating lunch and had an appointment 2/15/24 with vascular service to debride her coccyx wound and continued with the Medihoney dressing changes. During exam, R100 was lying in bed and the wound was documented as a deep tissue injury (DTI) to coccyx that was now unstageable. The note also indicated R100 had admitted to the facility with IAD (incontinence associated dermatitis). The note further indicated R100 slipped in the bathroom that resulted in a DTI to the coccyx and over time the area developed into thick eschar. The note indicated the area measured 7 cm by 6 cm by 2 cm of thick eschar, with no peri wound redness. Additionally, there were four areas to the peri wound with granulation present. R100's emergency department (ED) note dated 2/11/24, indicated R100 was seen for evaluation of a worsening sacral wound and had a CT scan that showed possible cellulitis of the sacral wound, and recommended follow up with the wound clinic. R100's After Visit Summary note dated 2/15/24, indicated new orders to cleanse the buttock wound(s) with normal saline, pat dry with non-sterile gauze, pack wounds with aquacel AG (used for wounds with moderate to heavy drainage) cover with Mepilex. Additionally, the note indicated to offer a supplement three times daily. R100's wound clinic note dated 2/15/24, indicated R100 reported the wound had been present since 10/2023. The note further indicated the wound bed contained necrotic material and the surrounding wound had healthy intact skin. Additionally, the wound had necrotic muscle and was a fairly deep stage four pressure ulcer. The wound pre debridement measurements were 7 cm (centimeters) long by 6.5 cm wide and 1.8 cm deep and total 56 square cm. Further, the note indicated the most important thing to do to support healing was to keep pressure off the wound, R100 should be repositioned every 2 hours around the clock while in bed. Additionally, the physician explained to R100 the importance of protein intake to wound healing and increasing protein intake will speed wound healing and to further speed wound heeling encouraged R100 to take a protein supplement. Further, R100 should only be in the wheelchair for 3 hours a day and R100 needed to reposition themselves every 15-20 minutes while there are in the wheelchair. R100's Wound Management form indicated there were no wound types identified for the resident. R100's nursing progress notes were reviewed from 1/6/24, to 2/14/24, and indicated the following: • No progress note was entered on 1/6/24. • 1/8/24 perineal care was completed and there was redness noted on R100's sacrum and cream per order and foam dressing endorsed. The documentation lacked any measurement of the reddened area. • 1/9/24 perineal cares were completed and nystatin was applied on redness, and [NAME] was applied on the sacrum and the foam dressing was changed. The documentation lacked any measurement of the reddened area to the sacrum. • 1/10/24 R100 complained of pain to the left heel which was offloaded with a pillow and blanchable redness was observed on the left heel. Nystatin was applied on the groin. The note indicated negative moisture positive redness and peeling skin was noted on the groin. Additionally R100's sacrum was still red and [NAME] was applied along with a foam dressing. The documentation lacked any measurement of the reddened area to the sacrum. • 1/10/24 R100 had a left heel stage 1 ulcer and orders were received to apply skin prep and allow to dry and blue boots both feet at all times except for cares. The documentation lacked a skin assessment of the left heel including measurements. • 1/12/24: R100 had a witnessed fall with staff and was lowered to the ground without injuries, the note indicated R100's legs got weak during a transfer with a [NAME] lift and it was recommended to change to a Hoyer for safety. • 1/13/24: R100 had a bruise on her right buttocks and the site was red with a closed bruise on the redness. The site was covered with a foam protective dressing. The red site was measured at 13 cm by 10 cm. • 1/14/24: R100 had [NAME] on her buttocks, and had bruises on the redness of the sacrum area. Further, the redness on the left heel was prepped and a foam dressing was applied. The heel was not measured. • 1/15/24: R100 had bruises on the sacrum with bleeding and peeling skin, and left heel cares were completed. • 1/24/24: R100's heel ulcers were documented as assessed and redressed, however there was no documentation of measurements or the assessment. • 1/28/24: R100's sacral wound care was completed and slough was noted on the buttocks and was increased in size. The NP was updated who ordered Medihoney and a foam dressing, up in the wheelchair for no more than 2 hours, change bed to an air mattress, and an OT evaluation for a Roho cushion. The note lacked a wound assessment to include any measurements. • 1/31/24: R100's total surface area of the sacral wound was 13 by 12 cm and there was no assessment documented on the wound bed. Additionally the left heel pressure wound was red dry and intact, however there were no measurements. • 2/1/24: R100's progress note indicated 13.4 cm by 0.1 cm and wound bed was 30% eschar, 30% slough, and 10% superficial tissue loss, 20% non blanchable irregular edges. The periwound was documented as intact and blanchable and the note indicated R100 was admitted with area. The progress note did not identify the location of the wound. • 2/3/24: R100's dressing on sacrum was changed and the eschar measured 5 by 6 cm and the total surface of the wound was 12 by 10 cm. The documentation lacked information on R100's left heel. • 2/7/24: R100 had eschar that measured 5 by 6 cm and had a total surface area of 11 by 10 cm and the heel wound was documented as intact with no open areas. The documentation lacked a measurement of the left heel wound, and did not identify the location of the wound with eschar. • 2/8/24: R100 had an unstageable area on the sacrum and coccyx that measured 13.5 cm by 13.5 cm by 0.1 cm and the wound bed had 30% eschar, 30% clean non granulated tissue, 10% superficial tissue loss, 20% non blanchable irregular edges and the area of eschar measured 6 cm by 6.8 cm and was unable to determine depth of the wound due to the eschar. The documentation indicated that R100 was admitted with the area. Additionally, R100 had a DTI on the left heel that measured 1.5 cm by 1.8 cm in an L shape that was intact and the surrounding wound was intact and pink. Additionally, the note indicated R100 admitted with area. This was the first time R100's left heel wound had been measured. • 2/14/24: R100's sacrum wound had a total surface area of 13.3 by 12 cm and the open wound measured 5.4 by 5.6 cm. The wound had varying wound depth with the deepest measuring 0.9 cm. R100 had a 2nd wound documented at the bottom of the first that measured 1.5 cm by 0.9 cm by 0.5 cm in depth, and an open wound at 6 O' clock on the right bottom that measured 3.8 by 0.6 cm, a wound at 9 O' clock 1.6 by 1.1cm, at 8 O' clock 3 by 0.5 cm, and had left buttocks excoriation 0.3 by 0.3 cm. R100's left heel was intact and measured 1.1 cm by 0.4 cm. During interview and observation on 2/12/24 between 4:40 p.m., and 4:48 p.m., R100 was laying on her back in bed towards her right side. A pillow was under the left side of R100 and a family member stated R100's sore was on the right side of her buttocks. At 4:48 p.m., R100 stated the sore on her bottom started in October and didn't become worse until coming to the facility. During continuous observation on 2/13/24 from 1:44 p.m., to 2:07 p.m., R100 was in a wheelchair and there was a Reliant 450 full body lift located in the hallway. At 2:06 p.m., registered nurse (RN)-A brought the full body lift into R100's room and was awaiting assist and at 2:07 p.m., nursing assistant (NA)-B entered the room. RN-A and NA-B positioned R100 in bed on her back. During interview on 2/13/24 at 2:10 p.m., RN-A and NA-B assisted in providing perineal cares and at 2:22 p.m., boosted R100 up in bed, positioned her on her back and provided the call light. RN-A and NA-B did not offer to lie resident on her side. During interview on 2/13/24 at 2:25 p.m., RN-A stated R100 had a bed sore on her bottom and came with incontinence associated dermatitis and it worsened because of incontinence. RN-A stated they use Medihoney for the area because it helped debride the slough and R100 had an appointment on 2/15/24, for vascular to have the wound checked. RN-A stated R100 should be kept repositioned on her left and right side and verified R100 was not positioned on her right or left side and further stated the ulcer was all over her buttocks. Additionally, RN-A stated R100's bed sore could worsen being on her back. Further, RN-A stated wound measurements were documented in the progress notes and was not sure how often they were completed. During observation on 2/13/24 at 3:04 p.m., R100 stated she would be willing to lie side to side. R100 had a pillow under her right side, but was still positioned on her back and the head of the bed was elevated about 30 degrees. R100 had a Journey wheelchair cushion in her wheelchair. During observation on 2/14/24 at 7:20 a.m., R100 was lying in bed on her back, her weight was shifted towards the right side but was mostly on her back and the head of the bed was elevated about 20 to 30 degrees. There was no pillow located under the left side of R100. During interview on 2/14/24 at 8:36 a.m., occupational therapist (OT)-F stated a Roho cushion was a gold standard for true pressure relief because it had air in its cells and were wonderful for wound management. OT-F stated if a resident had trouble with core stability, the cushion would be discouraged and in that case would use a foam cushion which still redistributes pressure, but the foam cushion gave more stability to feel secure in the chair. OT-F further stated the Roho worked well on the TCU. OT-F further stated if an order was to evaluate for a Roho, OT would document the evaluation and do a trial and error. The benefit of the doctor ordering a Roho is if we are not getting enough pressure relief from the redistribution mattress. OT-F stated an evaluation with an order should take place as soon as possible and a TCU patient was very easy to get to right away. OT-F stated R100 was on the TCU side. During interview on 2/14/24 at 9:18 a.m., the rehab director stated their OT was trained in wheelchair positioning and would initiate what they thought was appropriate with or without an order and would document. The rehab director reviewed the OT progress notes and did not locate any documentation of an OT evaluation for a Roho cushion. Further, the rehab director said when there is an order they are notified of the order by nursing staff and the therapist would address the order and would be in their documentation that they looked at the cushion and verified she did not see any documentation R100 was formally assessed for a Roho cushion. The rehab director stated the nurse manager or health unit coordinator would share with therapy anything new to address and stated she got the order and would get it to the appropriate person and was not aware of an order for a Roho cushion and stated she would look through her email. The rehab director also verified physical therapy would not be involved in the Roho cushion and stated if there was an order it would be emailed to her. During observation on 2/14/24 at 9:05 a.m., R100 still had a journey cushion in the wheelchair. RN-G stated R100 had a regular cushion not a Roho cushion. R100 also had a comfort curve cushion and RN-G stated that was not a Roho cushion, but later stated she would have to ask the nurse manager and verified the wheel chair cushion was a Journey wheelchair cushion and the cushion in R100's recliner was a Comfort Curve cushion. During interview on 2/14/24 at 9:11 a.m., OTR stated R100 did not have difficulty with core stability and when asked if R100 had been evaluated for a Roho cushion stated she thought R100 had a pressure relieving cushion on the chair and stated staff elevate the head of the bed for R100 to eat, but patients should not have the head of the bed elevated for a long period of time. During interview on 2/14/24 at 7:13 a.m., NA-B stated she looks on the care sheet to know what cares a resident requires and stated R100 never refused cares. NA-B further stated R100 was incontinent of stool and her dressing sometimes needed to be changed and stated R100 could not reposition herself and stated they reposition R100 off the area a little bit on the left side and right side. NA-B was not aware R100 had any issues with her heels. During interview on 2/14/24 at 9:37 a.m., the dietician (D)-I stated she monitors a appetites and their weights, and proteins, when a resident has a pressure ulcer. D-I stated if a resident had a stage 1 pressure ulcer she encouraged food and ensure and if a resident had a more serious ulcer, she reviews her supplements a resident may be interested in and added, it won't help if a resident refuses and stated she looks at the electronic medication administration record (EMAR). D-I further stated she looked at point of care to see what the NA's documented and stated they couldn't have an expectation that every single meal was documented, but stated the more documentation, the better. R-I stated Glucerna is made by the company that makes Ensure and is for people with diabetes and it was a protein to help with wounds. D-I stated if residents didn't like Glucerna, they had Arginaide which also helped with wound healing. D-I stated the nurses let her know if a resident was refusing [TRUNCATED]
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Deficiency F0554 (Tag F0554)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** R24 R24's quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicated R24 was cognitively intact and had diagnosis which included h...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** R24 R24's quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicated R24 was cognitively intact and had diagnosis which included heart failure, hypertension, and depression. R24 was independent with bed mobility, toileting, and transfers. During observation and interview on 2/12/24 at 2:10 p.m., R24 was sitting in her wheelchair in her room by herself placing medication from a medication cup into another cup of yogurt and then took medication using a spoon. R24 repeated process of self-administration to take the rest of the medications. A container of Tums and about nine stacked, empty medication cups were observed on R24's nightstand. R24 stated staff usually leave medication for her to take and the nurse knew what medications she was taking. During interview on 2/12/24 at 2:30 p.m., licensed practical nurse (LPN)-B stated R24 usually self-administered medication with yogurt and ice water, and staff recently needed to check-in with R24 since R24 was sometimes forgetting to take the medication. R24 was independent, and LPN-B had left the medications in the medication cup in R24's room around 8 a.m. LPN-B stated the clinical manager completed a self-administration assessment and a note was placed in the computer or care plan. LPN-B thought the Tums were okay to be in R24's room. If staff found medications that were not supposed to be in a room, staff were to take and lock up the medication so others could not take the medication. R24's care plan indicated to administer medication as ordered with start date of 8/9/23 and did not address self-administration of medication. R24's orders indicated okay to self-administer lactaid 3,000 unit 1 tab oral twice a day with start date of 1/3/24 and okay to keep by bedside estradiol cream 0.01% (0.1 mg/gram) onto external vaginal /urethral area with start date of 1/10/24. Other orders did not indicate self-administration. R24's Self-Administration of Medication assessment dated [DATE], indicated R24 could self-administer lactaid and stored in resident's room. R24's Self-Administration of Medication assessment dated [DATE], indicated R24 could self-administer estrogen cream and stored in resident's room. The SAM lacked evidence of other medications. During interview on 2/15/24 at 3:14 p.m., nurse manager (NM)-B stated staff get an order from a doctor and completed a medication observation for residents to self-administer medication. NM-B expected staff to watch residents take their medications if self-administration process was not completed. A self-administration assessment needed to be completed to show the resident knew how to take medication properly at the right times. During interview on 2/15/24 at 4:47 p.m., the director of nursing (DON) stated staff needed to ensure residents had a self-administration assessment completed prior to leaving prescribed medications at residents' bedside. Residents may be at risk for choking, dumping their medication and not taking them, and staff may not know what medication residents take without a completed self-administration assessment. Review of a facility titled Self- Administration of medications reviewed 2/2/19, indicated residents have the right to self-administer medications if the interdisciplinary team has determined it is clinically appropriate and safe. Further stated self- administered medications must be stored in a safe and secure place, which is not accessible by other residents. Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ensure a self-administration of medication assessment (SAM) was completed to allow residents to safely administer their own medications for 2 of 2 residents (R92, R24) observed with medications at the bedside. Findings include: R92 R92's quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicated R19 had intact cognition and had diagnosis which included non-Alzheimer's dementia and hypertension (elevated blood pressure. Indicated R92 was independent with bed mobility, toileting and transfers. During an observation on 2/12/24 at 2:08 p.m., there were four bottles of medication sitting on a desk in R92's room. During an observation on 2/13/24 at 8:30 a.m., four bottles of medication remain on a desk in R92's room as R92 was self-administering a medication from one of the bottles. R92 stated these are just my vitamins and I have been taking them myself for years. R 92's self-administration of medication assessment (SAM) dated 9/18/23, indicated R92 had no desire to self-administer medications. Review of R92's care plan dated 1/23/24 lacked any directives for self-medication administration. Review of the four bottles of medication in R92's room revealed the bottles contained Vitamin D 5000 units, whole fruit produce supplement, whole veggie supplement, and Omega XL joint and muscle support. R92's Physician orders dated 2/12/24, were reviewed and lacked an order for any of the above medications. Physician Orders also lacked a self-administration order. During an interview on 2/13/24 at 2:00 p.m., licensed practical nurse (LPN)-A stated was not aware R92 self-administered any medications. LPN-A verified SAM assessment dated [DATE], indicated R92 did not desire to self-administer any medications. During an interview on 2/13/24 at 2:05 p.m., nurse manager (NM) verified the four bottles of medication at R92's bedside and stated she was unaware R92 had any medications at his bedside. NM verified SAM assessment dated [DATE], indicated R92 did not desire to self-administer medications. NM further stated her expectation was that the SAM would have been updated. During an interview on 2/14/24 at 8:42 a.m., director of nursing (DON) stated when a resident wanted to self-administer medications, an assessment was completed to ensure they are safe to self-administer then an order is obtained from the provider. DON stated her expectation was that the SAM would have been updated to reflect R92's desire to self-administer medications.
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Deficiency F0578 (Tag F0578)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and document review, the facility failed to ensure resident current wishes for resuscitation status were accu...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and document review, the facility failed to ensure resident current wishes for resuscitation status were accurately documented in the medical record for 1 of 2 residents R19 reviewed for advanced directives. Findings include: R19's significant change Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicated R19 was cognitively intact and had diagnosis which included hypertension (elevated blood pressure), anemia, and gastro esophageal reflux disease. Identified R19 required staff assistance with activities of daily living (ADL's ) which included bed mobility, toileting and transfers. During an interview on 2/12/24 at 5:51 p.m., R19 stated her wishes were to be resuscitated (full code) status. R19's current care plan dated 9/6/23, identified R19's advance directives were for full resuscitation full code status. Review of R19's electronic health record (EHR) identified the following : -R19's physician orders dated 9/29/23, identified R19 had an order for full code status. -R19's banner and face sheet on the computer identified R19's code status was full code. -R 19's Physician Order Life Sustaining Treatment (POLST) dated 4/18/22, identified R19 was a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR). The electronic health record identified a discrepancy of R19's wishes for resuscitation. During an interview on 2/12/24 at 6:51 p.m., licensed practical nurse (LPN)-A stated her usual practice in verifying a resident's code status was to refer to the banner on the computer screen or the physician orders. LPN -A stated there is also a POLST in the computer that is sent to the emergency room with the resident. LPN-A further stated if the banner, physician orders and POLST didn't match She would then follow the physician orders. During an interview on 2/12/24 at 6:54 p.m., registered nurse (RN)-A stated her usual practice in verifying a residents code status was to refer to the banner on the computer screen. RN-A stated however, the POLST in the computer is what is sent to the emergency room when a resident is sent out. During an interview on 2/12/24 at 6:55 p.m., registered nurse RN-B stated her usual practice in verifying a resident's code status was to refer to the banner and the physician orders in the computer. During an interview on 2/12/24 at 6:59 p.m., registered nurse RN-C stated her usual practice for verifying a resident's code status was to refer to the banner. RN-C stated secondly; she would refer to the POLST in the computer. RN-C stated when a resident is transferred to the emergency room the POLST in the chart is sent with the resident to the hospital. RN-C further stated if the banner and the POLST didn't match she would refer to the banner as long as the banner matched the physician orders. During an interview on 2/13/24 at 1:50 p.m., nurse manager (MN) stated her expectation to verify a resident's code status was to refer to the banner and the physician orders in the computer first and that the POLST would be secondary. NM stated if the banner, physician orders, and POLST did not match her expectation was that staff would follow the physician orders. NM verified there was a discrepancy between the banner, physician orders, and the POLST for R19. NM further stated this was a concern because the POLST is sent with a resident to the emergency room and hospital and that there was a chance that R19's wishes may not have been followed. During an interview on 2/14/24 at 8:42 a.m., director of nursing (DON) confirmed there was a discrepancy in R19's medical record related to advance directive wishes. DON stated her expectation in determining a resident's code status was to refer to the banner or the physician orders since not all residents have a POLST. DON stated she was unsure why R19's old POLST was scanned into R19's medical record. DON further stated her expectation was that when a resident was admitted with a POLST that the POLST and the physician orders would match. Review of a facility policy titled Advance Directives reviewed 10/2/23, indicated on admission and at quarterly care conferences thereafter, residents are informed and provided information concerning the right to formulate an advance directive. Further stated the advance directive will be uploaded into the Matrix Care record under resident documents in the Advance Care Planning or Legal Section.
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Comprehensive Care Plan (Tag F0656)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** R21's annual Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicated R21 had severe cognitive impairment with diagnoses of dementia (loss...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** R21's annual Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicated R21 had severe cognitive impairment with diagnoses of dementia (loss of memory, language, problem-solving and other thinking abilities), depression, and anxiety. R21's MDS also indicated he was receiving an antipsychotic on a routine basis and identified the last gradual dose reduction was on 12/13/23. R21's MDS indicated he had activity preferences that were very important to him, including listening to music he liked, being around animals like pets, doing his favorite activities, and participating in religious services or practices. R21's MDS indicated he had activity practices that were somewhat important to him, including going outside to get fresh air when the weather was nice and doing things with groups of people. R21's Care Area Assessments (CAAs) dated 1/17/24, triggered for psychotropic drug use, psychosocial well-being, cognitive loss and dementia, and behavioral symptoms. The CAAs for psychotropic drug use and psychosocial well-being indicated they would be addressed in R21's care plan. R21's physician's orders for psychotropic medications included the following: - Cymbalta (duloxetine) 60 milligrams (mg) capsule, delayed release/enteric coated (DR/EC), Take 60mg oral once a morning for depression with anxiety, dated 2/9/22. - Seroquel (quetiapine) 25mg tablet, Take 12.5mg oral at bedtime for dementia with psychotic disturbance, dated 12/13/23. R21's care plan dated 7/20/23, was reviewed and lacked resident-centered interventions. The care plan identified that R21 was taking a psychotropic medication, Cymbalta, to assist in regulating his mood. The interventions included administer medication as ordered, ask physician to review medication for possible dose reduction every three months, monitor behavior every shift and document significant occurrences as needed, observe for possible side effects of current psychotropic medication, and report pertinent lab results to physician. The care plan lacked a problem, goal, and interventions for the antipsychotic medication Seroquel R21 was taking. The care plan identified R21 had a cognitive deficit with impaired decision making, forgetfulness and confusion related to dementia and Alzheimer's diagnosis, dated 1/16/24. The interventions were not resident-centered and included allowing ample time to absorb and respond to information, assessing for contributing factors, assessing history if impairment, onset and duration, monitoring for any changes or decline in cognitive status, providing a calm, therapeutic environment and structured routine, and requesting a physician consider a psychiatric evaluation as indicated. During interview on 2/15/24 at 5:10 p.m., the director of nursing (DON) stated for residents taking psychotropic medications, care plans should be developed specific to those types of medications. The DON stated care plans were reviewed quarterly and during care conferences with residents and/or representatives to ensure the care plans were resident-centered and specific. The DON reviewed R21's care plan and verified there was no care plan focus in place for the antipsychotic medication Seroquel. The DON acknowledged that R21's care plan was generic. A facility policy titled Comprehensive Assessments and Care Planning dated 7/2/18, stated the facility's purpose was to provide a comprehensive person-centered care assessment of the resident's condition to develop, review and revise the resident's person-centered comprehensive care plan. Furthermore, the policy indicated all person-centered care plans will incorporate the resident's personal and culture preferences. Additionally, the policy stated all person-centered interventions will be implemented by qualified personnel and may be communicated through the electronic health record, resident profile, assignment sheets, and/or verbal communication. Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to develop a comprehensive care plan to include assessed risks and interventions with skin care to reduce the risk of complication for 1 of 3 residents (R36) with pressure ulcers reviewed for care planning. In addition, the facility failed to develop a comprehensive person-centered care plan for psychotropic drug use for 1 of 5 residents (R21) reviewed for unnecessary medications. Findings include: R36's admission Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicate R36 had intact cognition and required staff assistance for most activities of daily living(ADL's). further, MDS indicated R36 was at risk for pressure ulcers and R36 had one stage three pressure ulcer and two unstageable pressure ulcers. R36's most recent Braden Scale dated 2/3/24, identified R36 as being bedfast (confined to bed all or most of the time) and having very limited mobility. Braden scale further identified R36 had two venous ulcers. The scale included a scoring system based on points attached to certain issues which could impact skin, and this identified R36 as being At moderate risk. R36's Care Area Assessment CAA) dated 2/2/24, identified R36 had two unstageable pressure ulcers and one stage three pressure ulcer. CAA stated to proceed to care plan to prevent further skin breakdown and infection. Review of a nursing progress note dated 2/4/24, identified R36 had a sacral wound that measured 2x1.5x2 cm. a left heel wound that measured 2x1cm. and a right heel wound that measured 3x1.5cm. Review of physician orders dated 2/7/23, identified orders for Medi honey to be applied to sacrum wound daily and calcium Arginade with silver to both heels and cover with ABD and wrap with Kerlix twice per day. During an observation on 2/12/24 at 2:10 p.m., R36 was lying in bed wearing a hospital gown on an air mattress on her right side with a pillow behind her back and her feet were elevated off of the mattress with a pillow. Both heels were wrapped with gauze. R36 was not able to respond to any questions. During an interview on 2/13/24 at 1:10 p.m., nursing assistant (NA)-A stated R36 was bedfast, required total staff assist for all cares and had pressure ulcers on her sacrum and on her heels. NA-A stated she knew that staff were supposed to reposition R36 every two hours but was unaware of any other interventions that were in place for R36. NA-A stated she did not recall seeing any pressure ulcers mentioned or any interventions in R36's care plan to prevent further skin breakdown. Review of R36's comprehensive care plan dated 1/25/24, lacked any identified skin problems and stated R36 was at risk for altered skin status with a goal of not developing any skin alterations. Despite R36's medical record identifying that she had pressure ulcers to her sacrum and both heels The only intervention to prevent further skin breakdown was to apply barrier cream to any dry areas. During an interview on 2/13/24 at 1:41 p.m., nurse manager (MN) confirmed R36 was admitted to the facility with pressure ulcers on her sacrum and both heels on 1/23/24. NM further confirmed R36's care plan lacked information regarding R36's pressure ulcers and interventions to prevent further skin breakdown. NM stated her expectation would have been that R36's care plan would have mentioned the pressure ulcers and provided interventions to prevent further skin breakdown so that all staff were aware of how to care for R36. During an interview on 2/14/24 at 8:42 a.m., director of nursing (DON) confirmed R36 was bedfast and had pressure ulcers upon admission to the facility. DON further confirmed R36's care plan lacked any mention of R36's pressure ulcers or interventions to prevent further skin breakdown. DON stated her expectation was that R36's comprehensive care plan would have mentioned R36's pressure ulcers and would have provided interventions to prevent further skin breakdown.
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Deficiency F0676 (Tag F0676)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ensure a walking program was maintained for 1 of 1 ...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ensure a walking program was maintained for 1 of 1 resident (R51) reviewed for ambulation. Findings include: R51's quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicated R51 was cognitively intact, independent for wheelchair mobility, and required supervision or touching assistance with ambulation. R51's MDS indicated R51 used a walker and manual wheelchair for mobility and had zero days of training and skill practice in walking during the seven-day look back period. R51's diagnoses included cancer, debility, and cardiorespiratory conditions. R51's care plan dated 2/14/24, indicated R51 was unable to ambulate independently related to unsteady gait and balance. Staff approaches for restorative nursing included documentation of walking program in electronic record and may call family to attempt to encourage resident to participate if refuses. The care plan indicated R51 was at risk for falls and directed staff assist R51 with ambulation program as directed with gait belt and w/c to follow and provide reminders to not ambulate/transfer without assistance. R51's order dated 10/1/23, directed staff to ambulate R51 with walker twice a day to tolerance with gait belt. R51's electronic administration record marked ambulation order as completed every morning and evening shift besides 2/3/24, 2/5/24 and 2/15/24. One of the three times the order was marked as not administered was related to resident refusal. The record did not specify distance or minutes ambulated. R51's nursing care sheet dated 2/9/24, directed staff to encourage R51 to walk to destinations and ambulate R51 twice a day and document in POC (point of care) and indicated R51 used a wheelchair and walker. R51's POC ambulation task dated 2/1/24 to 2/15/24, did not contain documentation for the following dates: 2/2/24, 2/7/24, 2/10/24, 2/11/24, and 2/14/24. On days of documentation, the task was marked as reviewed and did not include distance or minutes. R51's progress notes dated 11/15/23 to 2/15/24, indicated R51 refused ambulation approximately 37 times with last note being 1/27/24, approximately three times family assisted resident with ambulation, and one note which stated ambulation not done without further explanation. During interview on 2/12/24 at 4:49 p.m., family member (FM)-D stated R51 was weaker because he was not getting walked and believed less ambulation caused him to have a harder time transferring and increased risk of falls. FM-D stated family often walked with R51 but not the staff. During observation on 2/13/24 at 3:09 p.m., FM-D assisted R51 to ambulate with walker and gait belt in the hallway. During observation and interview on 2/14/24 at 7:56 a.m., R51 opened his door and was sitting in his wheelchair and dressed without socks or shoes. R51 stated he dressed himself. R51's walker was alongside a wall in his bedroom with the gait belt looped around the front bar of the walker. R51 placed his call light on, and nursing assistant (NA)-H came and applied R51's socks and shoes and asked what R51 wanted for breakfast. During interview on 2/14/24 at 12:32 p.m., R51 stated staff had not assisted him with ambulation yet today. During interview on 2/14/24 at 1:01 p.m., NA-F stated maintenance programs, such as ambulation, was on the team sheets or therapy had instructions in residents' rooms. During interview on 2/14/24 at 1:51 p.m., NA-G stated he did not assist R51 today and thought NA-H assisted R51. During observation on 2/14/24 at 1:54 p.m., R51 was in his recliner and the walker and gait belt were in the same spot. During interview on 2/14/24 at 2:42 p.m., NA-H stated NA-F had R51 on their group. During interview on 2/15/24 at 10:30 a.m., NA-F stated yesterday was busy and would say no one walked with R51. NA-F stated nursing assistants document R51's refusals of ambulation on the computer. During interview on 2/15/24 at 11:24 a.m., NA-G stated he had not seen anyone walk with R51 yesterday. During interview on 2/15/24 at 1:45 p.m., registered nurse (RN)-F stated R51 ambulated when he wanted to and sometimes refused which should be documented. RN-F stated she was not sure if R51 ambulated or not yesterday. RN-F had seen a staff person in R51's room who could have assisted R51 to ambulate around his room but was not sure if R51 was ambulated or not. When asked about nursing documentation yesterday which marked R51's ambulation as complete, RN-F stated she click, click, click[ed] at the end of the day. During interview on 2/15/24 at 3:23 p.m., nurse manager (NM)-B expected staff to ask R51 if he wanted to ambulate on morning and evening shifts. NM-B stated nursing assistants should document the distance and minutes R51 was ambulated, and nurses should indicate if R51 ambulated or refused. NM-B did not know how to look back to review POC documentation. NM-B stated R51 weakens when not ambulated and ambulation was good for R51's strength and endurance, especially since R51 self-transfers. During interview on 2/15/24 at 4:47 p.m., director of nursing (DON) expected staff to follow ambulation programs and offer ambulation. Reduction in current ambulation abilities could result when ambulation programs were not completed or offered. The facility policy Benedictine Restorative Nursing Program dated 6/9/20, indicated registered nurses provided oversight to the program to ensure the restorative interventions were being implemented as planned.
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Accident Prevention (Tag F0689)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to implement care plan interventions for 1 of 1 reside...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to implement care plan interventions for 1 of 1 resident (R263) reviewed with a history of falls. Findings include: R263's face sheet indicated R263 admitted to the facility on [DATE], and had the following diagnoses: ORIF (open reduction internal fixation a surgical procedure for repairing fractured bone) to right femur, chronic L2 (lumbar) and L3 burst fractures (when a vertebra is crushed in all directions, the condition is called a burst fracture), periprosthetic fracture (a broken bone that occurs around the implants) around other internal prosthetic joint, dementia, Parkinson's disease with dyskinesia (involuntary, erratic, writhing movements of the face, arms, legs, or trunk), age related osteoporosis with current pathological fracture. R263's Clinical Documentation admission form dated 2/8/24, indicated R263 rarely or never understood under the heading, Ability to express ideas and wants, consider both verbal and non-verbal expression. Additionally, under the heading, Ability to understand others indicated R263 rarely or never understood. The form indicated R263 had adequate vision, had a short-term, and long-term memory problem, had severely impaired cognitive skills for daily decision making. Additionally, R263 required extensive assist for bed mobility, transfers, toileting, and had a history of falling in the last month, 2-6 months, had a fracture related to a fall in the last 6 months prior to admissions, and occasionally had bladder incontinence. The form also indicated R263's prior device used prior to the current illness, exacerbation, or injury included a mechanical lift. A wheelchair and walker were unchecked. R263's physician orders form included the following orders dated 2/8/24: occupational therapy (OT) evaluate and treat continuous, and physical therapy (PT) evaluate and treat. On 2/9/24, R263's physician order included speech therapy (ST) evaluate and treat. R263's physician orders dated 2/8/24, indicated R263 could bear weight as tolerated on the right lower extremity with a walker. R263's care plan dated 2/9/24, indicated R263's goal was to return to the community and interventions included see also therapy plan of care. R263's care plan dated 2/9/24, indicated R263 required therapy services due to a diagnosis of weakness. Interventions included a therapy care plan that included PT, OT, and SLP (speech language pathologist), and the number of days per week was undocumented. R263's care plan dated 2/9/24 indicated R263 was at risk for falls due to weakness, and the goal was R263 would not sustain a fall related injury through the review date. Two interventions were listed on the care plan: grab bar, tab alarm. Interventions were later added on 2/14/24, that included: keep in supervised areas during the day for increased supervision, plan to move patient to room closer to desk for increased supervision as soon as available, PT (physical therapy) OT (occupational therapy) per physician orders, sensor alarm at all times. Nursing assistant care sheets provided on 2/12/24, did not include R263 on the care sheet, however, the director of nursing (DON) provided a care sheet via email on 2/15/24, and indicated the care sheet was from 2/12/24. The care sheet indicated R263 was at high risk for falls and was to be in supervised areas when out of bed, and had an alarm, but did not specify the type of alarm. R263's Occupational Therapy Evaluation and Plan of Treatment form dated 2/9/24, was reviewed and R263's prior level of functioning indicated R263 lived in an assisted living facility and required stand by assist (SBA) with activities of daily living (ADLs) with a walker, and had a front wheeled walker and wheelchair for prior equipment. R263's Occupational Therapy Treatment Encounter Notes forms dated 2/9/24, 2/10/24, 2/13/24, 2/14/24, were reviewed and lacked information regarding the height position of R263's bed, location of the walker, and wheelchair when R263 was in bed. R263's Physical Therapy Evaluation and Plan of Treatment form dated 2/9/24, indicated R263's prior level of functioning indicated R263 lived in an assisted living facility and required stand by assist (SBA) with activities of daily living (ADLs) with a walker, and had a front wheeled walker and wheelchair for prior equipment. Physical Therapy Treatment Encounter Notes forms dated 2/9/24, 2/10/24, 2/11/24, 2/12/24, 2/14/24, were reviewed and lacked information regarding the height position of R263's bed, location of the walker, and wheelchair when R263 was in bed. R263's Physical Therapy Treatment Encounter Note dated 2/12/24, indicated R263 had fallen over the weekend and nursing indicated it was not ok for R263 to be in the room alone anymore and must be in communal areas during the day. R263's Therapy Screen form dated 2/9/24, indicated under a heading, Speech Therapy Areas included swallowing, memory, cognition, and communication and an order was requested for ST due to new admission with a medical history significant for Parkinson's and dementia. R263's Event Report form dated 2/11/24, indicated R263 had a witnessed fall in her room and had walked to get her clothes and was in bed prior to the fall. Immediate actions taken included first aid and an emergency room visit. A bed alarm was in use at the time of the fall. The report indicated R263 had been evaluated by PT/OT/ST for falls. Further, the nurse was notified by the cleaning lady R263 was on the ground and R263 stated she hit her head with a bump on the left side of her head and was sent to the emergency department for an unwitnessed fall. R263 returned around 5:40 p.m., and was situated in bed and her alarm went off at 6:00 p.m., and was found on the floor trying to get her purse. R263's Event Report form dated 2/11/24, indicated R263 fell in her room and was trying to walk just prior to the fall. Additionally, R263 was in bed prior to the fall. Immediate measures taken include a bed alarm and the on call nurse practitioner was updated. The report indicated R263 had not been evaluated by PT/OT/SLP for falls and the event was still open. R263's Emergency Medicine Visit Note dated 2/11/24, indicated R263 was in the emergency department for evaluation of a mechanical fall and the note indicated a new osseous (bone) fragment superior (upper) to the right lesser trochanter (a bony projection from the shaft of the femur), likely new displaced fracture fragment. Orthopedics was consulted and recommended weight bearing as tolerated. During interview on 2/13/24 at 9:51 a.m., family member (FM)-E stated R263 had fallen a couple of times she she had been at the facility. FM-E stated R263 fell at the other facility as well and broke her leg and was at the current facility for rehab. FM-E stated they hadn't stated they were going to do anything different from falling. During interview and observation on 2/14/24 from 7:34 a.m. to 7:47 a.m., R263's door was closed and the call light was on. No staff were in the room upon entrance and resident stated she had to go home and go to the bathroom. R263 was in a gown and the bed was in the low position. R263's walker was across the room. Nursing assistant (NA)-C entered the room at 7:35 a.m. and stated R263 had a bed alarm that sounded when R263 got up. At 7:37 a.m., NA-C took the wheelchair out of the bathroom and placed it next to the bed and locked the brakes and raised the bed up to assist R263 in a transfer. A personal alarm was located in R263's reclining chair and NA-C verified the personal alarm in the chair should be in the chair. At 7:38 a.m., NA-C assisted R263 to stand and the bed alarm began to alarm. At 7:39 a.m., NA-C assisted R263 to the toilet. NA-C stated they have a team sheet to know what cares a resident required. At 7:44 a.m., NA-C locked the wheel chair and assisted resident back into bed and at 7:46 a.m., turned the alarm on again. At 7:47 a.m. NA-C raised the bed from the floor up where the top of the mattress was approximately three feet from the floor. Then at 7:50 a.m., NA-C lowered the bed to the floor and put the wheelchair by the door by the walker which were both out of the resident's reach. At 7:54 a.m. NA-C stated the door should be left open and left the room. At 7:56 a.m., NA-C answered R263's light that was just turned on. During observation on 2/14/24 at 8:01 a.m., R263's call light was on and could hear resident asking about talking to family. During observation on 2/14/24 at 8:10 a.m., an unknown staff person came up the stairs and walked past R263's room and did not answer the light. During observation on 2/14/24 at 8:13 a.m., two staff members were at the end of the hallway but did not answer R263's light. During observation on 2/14/24 at 8:14 a.m., registered nurse (RN)-E entered R263's room and R263 asked her about calling her mother. During interview on 2/14/24 between 8:15 a.m. and 8:36 a.m., RN-E stated R263 came from memory care the end of the week prior and they planned to move R263 to another room because she had a couple of falls and they wanted her closer to the desk. RN-E stated she thought the tab alarm should be on at all times and further stated the team sheets would indicate alarm, but did not always specify which type of alarm. RN-E stated if they identify a resident can remove an alarm independently a sensor alarm is put on the care sheet, but RN-E stated she did not know whether R263 could remove the tab alarm and stated R263 at least had the sensor alarm which should be sufficient. RN-E further stated she hadn't gotten feedback from staff regarding R263's transfers and stated with her cognition, the walker and wheelchair should not be close to her when in bed because sometimes residents will want to pop up and use them. RN-E stated R263 had two falls on the 2/11/24. RN-E further stated staff did not add a lot of information when they entered the care plan. RN-E further stated the minimum data set (MDS) nurses used to update care plans and they dropped MDS nurse hours and the nurse on the floor puts in the initial and then RN-E updates the care sheet and tries to do as much as she can on the care plan. RN-E stated she expected care plans to be updated and stated she would clarify the type of alarm. RN-E further stated R263's bed should be kept in a regular height position, and stated she expected the walker and wheelchair location should be on the care plan so it was individualized per patient and stated it would be important for staff to know. RN-E verified the care plan had not been updated since it was initially added. During interview on 2/14/24 at 1:58 p.m., NA-D stated they had care sheets to know what cares a resident required. When asked if R263's wheelchair or walker should be by her when in bed, NA-D stated she thought the wheelchair should be by her because she knew R263 was at risk for falling. NA-D further stated the beds were always supposed to be in the lowest position. NA-D stated the care sheet didn't always give her that information and added the little bit she worked with R263, she did not know. NA-D stated she thought they discontinued the tab alarm and now had a pad alarm. During interview on 2/14/24 from 2:06 p.m. to 2:19 p.m., licensed practical nurse (LPN)-E stated when a resident falls, they used a cheat sheet so you didn't miss anything. LPN-E stated R263 had confusion, was impulsive and forgetful and didn't remember to use the call light. LPN-E further stated she looked at care plans and stated R263's call light was on from 6:20 to 6:35 and had the light on seven times in a period of 15 minutes and instructed staff R263 needed to come out here for her safety. LPN-E stated the bed is supposed to be in a regular position versus a low position. LPN-E stated she did not think the wheelchair or the walker should be by the bedside. LPN-E stated she expected the alarm types and when to use the alarms be care planned and on the care sheets and the position of the walker and wheelchair whether placed by the bed or pulled away. LPN-E further stated if a resident falls you are supposed to apply an intervention and the care plan should be updated after a fall and verified the care plan had not been updated after the fall at the time of the fall. During interview on 2/14/24 at 2:35 p.m., NA-E stated she was agency staff and stated they looked at the care plan. NA-E would need to see R263's face and thought the bed should be in the lowest position if a resident was a fall risk, and stated she would assume if a resident was at risk for falling the wheelchair and walker would be placed against the wall unless the care plan indicated otherwise. NA-E verified her care sheet did not specify type of alarm, nor the location of the wheelchair and walker when resident was in bed. During interview on 2/14/24 at 2:51 p.m., the director of nursing (DON) stated when a resident falls, the nurses on the floor completes an assessment and an event notification, calls the DON, updates the provider and the nurse management team takes data and does a follow up plan. DON further stated they expected nurses on the floor to do something but they wouldn't add a care plan in the system, but would document interventions. DON further stated she expected the care plan to be updated within 24 hours. Additionally the intervention would go on the nursing assistant care sheets. DON stated if the resident is cognizant and can remove the tab then they would use the pad alarm. DON further stated interventions were determined based on what the resident was attempting to do. DON verified the care plan had not been updated until 2/14/24, and stated she expected interventions to be on the care plan and added R263 was brand new and they would have to learn and additionally nursing hadn't done an assessment on where she should have equipment and therapy would do their assessment and offer insight. A policy, Integrated Fall Management dated 8/24/17, indicated residents were assessed for their risk of falls upon admission, significant change, and quarterly thereafter. Residents with risk for falling will have interventions implemented through the resident centered care plan. When a resident falls, a licensed nurse assesses the residents condition, provides care for, safety and comfort. A fall risk assessment is completed within 48 hours of admission to the community, residents at risk for falls have an individualized resident centered care plan developed. care plan interventions are based on the finding of the fall risk assessment. Additional professionals may be contacted to provide assessment and or interventions regarding fall risk and prevention, including but not limited to the attending physician/provider, pharmacist, physical therapist, occupational therapist, and speech therapist. When a resident falls the environment of the fall is evaluated for possible contributing factors and addressed, the interdisciplinary team reviews the fall and care plan changes and may, if needed, implement additional interventions.
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Pharmacy Services (Tag F0755)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to ensure appropriate collaboration with providers and p...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to ensure appropriate collaboration with providers and pharmacy in the transcription of orders for 3 of 3 (R7, R56, and R66) reviewed for medications. Findings include: R7's face sheet printed on 2/15/24, included diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease and dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). During medication administration observation on 2/14/24 at 8:05 a.m., registered nurse (RN)-E prepared R7's medications. Medications included the following: -amlodipine 10 mg tablet -famotidine 20 mg tablet -aspirin 81 mg enteric coated tablet -calcitriol 0.25 mcg capsule -vitamin d 25 mcg capsule (capsule ordered but RN-E gave tablet) -Centrum multivitamin tablet -senna plus tablets RN-E placed all R7's in an envelope and then placed envelope into a pill crusher to crush R7's medications. RN-E placed crushed medications in pudding and administered to R7. R7's physician order review, dated 2/15/24, lacked an order to crush medications. R7's care plan, dated 2/15/24, lacked indication or preference of how R7 takes medications (i.e., whole or crushed). Review of R7's progress notes for period of 8/15/23 to 2/15/24, lacked any notification to pharmacy of R7 taking crushed medication or notification to the provider. Upon further review of EMR, no indications of pharmacy being notified of R7 taking medications crushed. R7's administration notes for the MAR indicate on 2/4/24, medication crush with pudding pureed diet. Entry previously on 12/13/23, indication medication whole. R56's annual Minimum Data Set (MDS), dated [DATE], identified a diagnosis of dementia and had impaired cognition. It further identified that R7 is on a mechanically altered and therapeutic diet. The assessment further identified no signs and symptoms of possible swallowing disorder. R56's face sheet printed on 2/15/24, included diagnosis of dementia and dysphagia. During medication administration observation on 2/14/23 at 7:55 a.m., registered nurse (RN)-E prepared R56's medications. RN-E placed R56's morning medication which included acetaminophen 325 mg two tablets scheduled, senna plus two tablets scheduled, and senna plus two tablets prn (as needed) were crushed together prior to administration and given to R56 in pudding. RN-E indicated the administration notes on the medication administration record indicated to crush medications. R56's physician order report, dated 2/15/24, lacked an order to crush medications. R56's care plan, printed 2/15/24, lacked indication of how R56 takes medications (i.e., whole or crushed). R56's administration notes for the MAR indicate that on 2/4/24 to crush pills. Entry previously was on 3/9/23 indication pills whole with thickened water or juice. R66's quarterly MDS, dated [DATE], identified a diagnosis of dementia and had impaired cognition. It identified R56 is on a mechanically altered diet and identified no signs and symptoms of possible swallowing disorder. Review of R66's progress notes for period of 8/15/23 to 2/15/24, lacked any notification to pharmacy of R66 taking crushed medication or notification to the provider. Upon further review of EMR, no indications of pharmacy being notified of R56 taking medications crushed. R66's physician note, dated 12/27/23, identified R66 current medications as follows: -acetaminophen 325 mg tablet -albuterol 108 microgram/actuation (mcg/act) -albuterol 2.5 mg/3 milliliter (ml) 0.083% neb solution -senna-docusate 8.6-50 mg tablet R66's physician order report, dated 2/15/24, identified the following orders as of 12/27/24: -senna plus 8.6-50 mg take 2 tablets by mouth once a morning start date 11/20/2020 -Tylenol 325 mg take two tablets oral every 4 hours as needed start date 8/19/21 -albuterol sulfate solution for nebulization 2.5 mg/3 ml (0.083%) 1 vial inhalation three times a day as needed start date 10/26/23 -Dulcolax delayed release tablet 10mg by mouth once a day as needed start date 12/1/23 -hyoscyamine sulfate elixir 0.125 mg tablet oral one tablet sublingual every 4 hours for secretions as needed start date 12/1/23 -morphine concentrate solution 100mg/5 mL take 0/.25 mL by mouth every hour as needed start date 12/1/23 -ipratropium-albuterol solution for nebulization 0.5 mg-3 mg (2.5 mg base)/3 ml 1 vial inhalation three times a day start date 12/1/23 Upon review, the medications on the physician order report and the physician progress note do not match. R66's care plan printed 2/15/24, included diagnoses of insomnia. R66's provider note, dated 1/17/24, included an order for trazodone 50 milligrams (mg) tablet take 50 mg by mouth at bedtime and calcium carbonate (TUMS) 500 mg chewable tablet take 200 mg by mouth four times daily. The provider note is electronically signed by provider. R66's physician order report, dated 2/15/24, lacked an order for trazodone 50 mg by mouth at bedtime. The identified an order for calcium carbonate 200 mg one tablet four times a day prn [as needed] for indigestion per SHO [standing house orders]. R66's standing house orders, signed 1/2024, indicate an order for calcium carbonate 500 mg one tablet PO [by mouth] four times a day prn [as needed] for three days. R66's electronic medical record (EMR) included a discontinue order for trazodone 50 mg on 1/10/24. R66's quarterly MDS, dated [DATE], indicated intact cognition. It identified that R66 is on a therapeutic diet and identified no signs and symptoms of possible swallowing disorder. Upon review, the medications on the physician order report and the physician progress note do not match. During an interview on 2/14/24 at 1:05 p.m., nurse manager (NM)-B stated if a resident was having difficulty swallowing then a speech evaluation would be requested. They indicated if a resident takes their medications crushed, an administration note was added to the MAR. They stated they do not put an order in for crushed medications. NM-B stated the physicians are notified some of the time and believes the pharmacy consultant can see the administrant notes. NM-B stated on certain medications, it was indicated not to crush the medications. NM-B stated nurses were expected to know what medications can be crushed. During an interview on 2/14/24 at 1:20 p.m., NM-B provided standing house orders that indicated medications can be crushed unless contraindicated. During an interview on 2/14/24 at 2:22 p.m., RN-C stated floor nurses or the health unit coordinators (HUC)/health information manager (HIM) put physician orders into Matrix (EMR). RN-C stated floor nurses were not responsible to view the provider notes after visits as if there was a change in medication then a new order is written. RN-C stated they do not compare the medication on the physician notes to the medications in the facility EMR. RN-C verified they can use the physician notes for signed orders if needed. During an interview on 2/14/24 at 2:34 p.m., HIM-A indicated part of their role was to enter physician orders. HIM-A stated physician progress notes were used as signed orders and were uploaded after visits. HIM-A stated it was not within their scope to review all the medications on the physician notes as this would be out of their scope. HIM-A indicated they do not review the physician notes for accuracy of medications or compare medications list to what was in facility EMR system as a HIM was not qualified to do this. During an interview on 2/14/24 at 2:42 p.m., NM-A stated physician progress notes were reviewed for accuracy and the providers get the medication from the facility. NM-A stated the providers were not routinely printed a facility medication list during visits. During an interview on 2/15/24 at 9:00 a.m., RN-F stated typically all residents have standing house orders signed by the provider upon admission. They indicated the were in the background meaning they were only to be used when needed and on a temporary basis. RN-F stated if you were using the standing house orders for more than a couple of days, then you must notify the provider. RN-F stated if a resident starts taking their medications crushed, a progress note would be put in and the provider would be updated. RN-F did not say anything about notifying the pharmacy. RN-F stated they know what medications can and cannot be crushed. RN-F stated an order for crushed was not put into the EMR and an administration note was added indicating how the resident takes their medications. During an interview on 2/15/24 at 10:42 a.m., nurse practitioner (NP)-A stated that physician orders were in both matrix [facility EMR] and Epic [provider EMR]. They indicated they do a comparison of medications but primarily use the facility medication list as this was what was being administered. NP-A indicated on the provider notes there was a statement all meds and allergies reviewed in the record at the facility and is the most up-to date. NP-A stated the provider notes were sent over to the facility automatically and believes they were being reviewed as they have heard them being referenced during care conference. NP-A stated the most up to date medication was in the facility EMR. NP-A stated would expect to be notified if a resident was changed to crushed medications due to swallowing concerns. NP-A stated the pharmacy should be reviewing the medications prior to crushing any medication to ensure they can be crushed. If the pharmacy identified an issue with a certain medication being crushed, a new order would be given. During an interview on 2/15/24 at 11:42 a.m., director of nursing (DON) stated if an order was used off the standing house orders, then we would update the provider. It would be on-going communication with the provider as these were used more for a temporary basis. DON stated if medications were being crushed, it would be the expectation to notify the provider as further evaluation would need to be done. DON stated we use the administration notes section to indicate how residents take their medications for example: crushed, or whole in applesauce. DON stated nurses do not get specific training on what medications can or cannot be crushed as it would be expected they know this information, use the drug books available in the nursing office or use online resources. DON stated some medication cards have labels on them that the medications cannot be crushed. DON stated previously had the pharmacist review medication that can be crushed for special cases, but this was not the standard practice. DON was unsure if the pharmacist can see the administration notes on the MAR. DON stated the provider notes were used to sign medication orders. She stated the current process to verify the provider medication list matches the facility list isn't solid at this time. DON stated the process needs to be reviewed. She verified there were medications on the provider notes (were being used as signed orders) were not being administered at the facility. DON stated we need to solidify this process. During an interview on 2/15/24 at 4:00 p.m., consulting pharmacist (CP)-A stated was not notified if a resident takes crushed medications. CP-A stated was not notified when a resident was taking their medications crushed and does not see the medication administration notes on the MAR. CP-A verified would only know if a resident was taking crushed medications was if a physician order was put in. CP-A verified it was important a pharmacist reviews medications prior to the medications being crushed to ensure they can be crushed. Per standing house orders, record indicates on the top All orders initiated from standing orders should be communicated to the provider. A facility policy regarding ensuring accurate collaboration between providers was requested and not received. A facility policy titled Medication Administration, revision date 8/14, was provided. The policy indicates that medications are administered as prescribed. It further indicates that crushing tablets may require a physician's order, per facility policy. No additional facility policy was provided.
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Unnecessary Medications (Tag F0759)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ensure they were free of a medication error rate of five percent or greater. The facility had a medication error rate of 8%...

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Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ensure they were free of a medication error rate of five percent or greater. The facility had a medication error rate of 8% with 2 errors out of 25 opportunities involving 1 of 5 residents (R7) who were observed during medication administration. Findings include: R7's face sheet printed on 2/15/24, included diagnosis of gastro-esophageal reflux disease without esophagitis (GERD-acid reflux), R7's physician progress note, dated 1/10/24, included diagnoses of gastro-esophageal reflux disease without esophagitis (GERD-acid reflux), coronary artery disease, hypertension (high blood pressure), congestive heart failure, chronic kidney disease. R7's medication administration summary (MAR) for February 2024, identified the following orders included: - start date 12/8/22, aspirin 81 mg enteric coated tablet take one tablet by mouth once a morning -start date 12/8/22, calcitriol 0.25 mcg capsule take one capsule by mouth once a morning During an observation and interview on 2/14/24, at 8:05 a.m., registered nurse (RN)-E was preparing R7's medications. RN-E put all medications into a plastic envelope and placed the envelope into the pill crusher proceeding to crush the medications. RN-E placed R7's crushed medications in pudding and administered. During interview on 2/14/24, at 8:08 a.m., RN-E stated R7 takes all their medications crushed. RN-E stated was unsure if there was an order for crushed medications but there was an administration note indicating t R7 takes medications crushed. RN-E indicated the capsule can be crushed as it will get goopy and mix with the other medications. R7's physician order review, dated 2/15/24, lacked an order to crush medications. R7's orders indicated an order for minced and moist texture for food and thin liquid with a start date of 2/22/23. R7's care plan, dated 2/15/24, lacked indication of how R7 takes medications (i.e. whole or crushed). R7's administration notes on MAR indicated medications whole dated 12/13/23, with a change on 2/4/24, to medication crush with pudding pureed diet. During interview on 2/14/24, at 1:05 p.m., nurse manager (NM)-B stated it was indicated not to crush on certain medication packages. NM-B stated nurses were expected to know what medications can be crushed. NM-B verified enteric coated medications and capsules should not be crushed. During an interview on 2/15/24 at 10:42 a.m., nurse practitioner (NP)-A stated the pharmacy should be reviewing the medications prior to crushing any medication to ensure they can be crushed. If the pharmacy identified an issue with a certain medication being crushed, a new order would be given. During an interview on 2/15/24 at 11:42 a.m., director of nursing (DON) stated nurses do not get specific training on what medications can or cannot be crushed as it would be expected they know this information, use the drug books available in the nursing office or use online resources. DON stated some medication cards have labels on them that the medications cannot be crushed. DON verified capsules and enteric coated medications should not be crushed. DON verified was made aware of this medication error. During an interview on 2/15/24 at 4:00 p.m., consulting pharmacist (CP)-A stated taking either enteric coated aspirin crushed or calcitriol 0.25mcg capsule could cause a stomachache. CP-A stated, thinks the manufacturer says do not crush regarding the calcitriol capsule. A facility policy titled Medication Administration Preparation and General Guidelines, dated 12/17, was provided. The policy indicates long-acting or enteric-coated dosage forms should not be crushed: an alternative should be sought. It further indicates to check with the pharmacist before opening any capsules.
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Deficiency F0804 (Tag F0804)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** During an interview on 2/12/24 at 5:37 p.m., DA-A stated all the food should have been at least 135 degrees F. DA-A further stat...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** During an interview on 2/12/24 at 5:37 p.m., DA-A stated all the food should have been at least 135 degrees F. DA-A further stated the food should not have been served to the residents until the temperature was at least 135 degrees F. During an interview on 2/13/24 at 2:24 p.m., culinary director (CD) indicated was aware of the residents' concerns regarding the cold food. CD stated was new to the facility however; the expectation was all hot food should be at least 135 degrees or warmer before being served. During an interview on 2/14/24 at 842 a.m., director of nursing DON stated was aware the residents had concerns regarding the food being cold. DON stated expectation was the food would be at proper temperatures before being served. Review of a facility policy titled Maintaining Proper Food Temp During Food Service undated, indicated food served will be maintained at proper hot and cold temperatures prior to and during meal service to assure food quality and tastiness/ palatability as well as food safety. Further indicated the temperature of hot food will be at 135 degrees F or higher during tray assembly. Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ensure food was served at a palatable and appetizing temperature for 3 of 3 residents (R16, R19, R96) reviewed for dining services. Findings include: R16 R16's annual Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicated R16 was cognitively intact and required set-up or clean-up assistance with eating. On 2/12/24 at 5:21 p.m., R16 was eating their meal while sitting up in bed and stated they ate meals in their room. R16 stated the food was cold more than it should be. R19 and R96 R19's significant change Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], identified R19 was cognitively intact and was independent with eating after set up. R96's significant change Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE]. Identified R96 was cognitively intact and was independent with eating. During an interview on 2/12/24 at 12:58 p.m., R19 stated it doesn't seem to matter if I eat in my room or in the dining room the food was never hot it was always luke warm. During an interview on 2/12/24 at 2:46 p.m., R96 stated the food was not very good and the hot food was usually cold. On 2/12/24 at 5:20 p.m., during the evening meal R19 was seated in her wheelchair in the dining room with a plate in front of her that contained macaroni and cheese with hot dogs and broccoli. R19 stated her food was cold and requested a turkey sandwich. On 2/12/24 at 5:23 p.m., R 96 had finished eating his meal and as he left the dining room, he stated his supper was cold but he ate it because he was hungry. On 2/12/24 at 5:30 p.m., as the last tray was being dished up a test tray was requested from the dietary assistant (DA-A) from the steam table. The meal consisted of macaroni and cheese with hot dogs and broccoli. The temps were noted to be as follows: -macaroni and cheese was 105 degrees fahrenheit (F) -Hot dog was 115 degrees F. -Broccoli was 94 degrees F. DA-A tasted the items and confirmed the macaroni and cheese and broccoli were cold and the hot dog was barely luke warm.
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Infection Control (Tag F0880)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ensure proper glove use for 1 of 2 resident (R103) ...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ensure proper glove use for 1 of 2 resident (R103) reviewed for blood sugar checks and failed to ensure appropriate hand sanitization between glove use for 1 of 2 resident (R100) reviewed during incontinence cares. Findings include: R103 R103's OBRA (omnibus budget reconciliation act) admission assessment dated [DATE], included diagnosis of stroke (occurs when blood supply to the brain is reduced or blocked) and diabetes mellitus. R103's orders directed staff to take R103's blood sugars four times a day with start date of 1/12/24. During observation on 2/15/24 at 11:58 a.m., licensed practical nurse (LPN)-C did not have gloves on and used lancet to prick R103's finger on left hand and obtained blood sample on the glucometer machine. During interview on 2/15/24 at 2:07 p.m., LPN-C stated staff wear gloves when in contact with bodily fluids, such as when assisting with peri-cares, wound care, and oral care. LPN-C agreed they did not wear gloves when checking R103's blood sugar and stated they were not in contact with R103's blood and regularly had to squeeze R103's fingers on the left hand to get enough blood out for the blood glucose reading. LPN-C stated they wore gloves when obtaining a blood sample from R103's right hand because more blood came out from R103's right hand and blood would touch staff's finger. During interview on 2/15/24 at 4:47 p.m., director of nursing (DON) stated they expected staff to wear gloves when completing blood glucose checks. Not wearing gloves was an infection control issue and caused a risk of bloodborne pathogens. The facility's procedure Performing a Blood Glucose Test dated July 2017, directed staff to put on gloves prior to washing resident's hands or wiping resident's finger with alcohol wipe to prepare finger to be lanced and to remove gloves after disposal of gauze/cotton ball and testing strip. R100's admission Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated [DATE], indicated intact cognition, did not reject cares, was dependent on staff for toileting hygiene, had an indwelling catheter, and was always incontinent of bowel. Further, the MDS indicated R100 had the following medical diagnoses: multiple sclerosis (an autoimmune disease that affects the nervous system), depression, chronic cystitis (inflammation of the bladder usually caused by a bladder infection) without hematuria (blood in urine), and neuromuscular dysfunction of the bladder. R100's care sheet provided on 2/12/24, indicated R100 had a suprapubic catheter. R100's care plan dated 1/7/24, indicated R100 had a self care deficit with activities of daily living (ADLs), and bowel and bladder. The care plan lacked information R100 had a suprapubic catheter. R100's physician orders dated 1/9/24, indicated to cleanse suprapubic stoma (opening) site with normal saline and dry. Apply Bacitracin twice a day and cover with a drain sponge. R100's nurse practitioner note dated 2/13/24, indicated R100 had recurrent urinary tract infections (UTI) and orders indicated to continue bactroban twice daily with drain sponge for status post suprapubic catheter placement. During interview and observation on 2/13/24, between 2:10 p.m., and 2:25 p.m., registered nurse (RN)-A and nursing assistant (NA)-B assisted R100 with incontinent cares. At 2:10 p.m., both RN-A and NA-B donned gloves. At 2:11 p.m., R100 was incontinent of stool that spread to the front of her brief. At 2:12 p.m., RN-A cleaned around R100's suprapubic catheter and threw the gloves in the trash and grabbed new gloves and did not wash hands and grabbed four by four gauze and applied a skin prep to the area around the suprapubic catheter. RN-A grabbed a new split sponge and took off her gloves and grabbed new gloves and donned the new gloves without sanitizing hands and secured the split gauze with tape and then continued to assist in cleaning resident's peri area. RN-A stated R100 was treated a couple of weeks ago for a UTI and further stated gloves were supposed to be changed as much as you can if they are soiled and when going to a clean surface and equipment and verified she did not sanitize hands between changing gloves and stated there was a risk of infection when not sanitizing hands between glove use. During interview on 2/15/24, at 9:57 a.m., nurse practitioner (NP)-C stated she treated R100 for a UTI with the suprapubic catheter and expected staff to sanitize between incontinence care and the suprapubic catheter cares. During interview on 2/15/24 at 12:40 p.m., the director of nursing stated she expected staff sanitize hands between cares and gloves for infection control and to not allow germs to the suprapubic site. A policy, Hand Hygiene, dated June 2017, indicated infection prevention begins with basic hand hygiene. By following proper hand hygiene practices, associates will reduce the spread of potentially deadly germs, as well as reduce the risk of healthcare provider colonization caused by germs acquired from the residents. Hand hygiene simply means cleaning hands using either handwashing (washing hands with soap and water), or antiseptic hand rub (i.e. alcohol-based hand sanitizer, including foam or gel). Times to perform hand hygiene included before and and after assisting a resident with personal cares, before and after changing a dressing, before and after assisting a resident with toileting wash hands with soap and water, after contact with resident's mucous membranes and body fluids or excretions, after handling soiled or used linens, dressing, bedpans, catheters and urinals, after removing gloves or aprons.
CONCERN (E)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Deficiency F0883 (Tag F0883)

Could have caused harm · This affected multiple residents

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and document review, the facility failed to have a method or system in place to ensure the facility offered o...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and document review, the facility failed to have a method or system in place to ensure the facility offered or provided 3 of 5 residents (R9, R92, R103) updated vaccines to residents per Centers for Disease Control (CDC) vaccination recommendations. This had the ability to affect all 117 residents. Findings include: Review of the current CDC pneumococcal vaccine guidelines located at https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/vpd/pneumo/hcp/pneumo-vaccine-timing.html, identified for: 1) Adults 19-[AGE] years old with specified immunocompromising conditions, staff were to offer and/or provide: a) the PCV-20 at least 1 year after prior PCV-13, b) the PPSV-23 (dose 1) at least 8 weeks after prior PCV-13 and PPSV-23 (dose 2) at least 5 years after first dose of PPSV-23. Staff were to review the pneumococcal vaccine recommendations again when the resident turns [AGE] years old. 2) Adults [AGE] years of age or older, staff were to offer and/or provide based off previous vaccination status as shown below: a) If NO history of vaccination, offer and/or provide: aa) the PCV-20 OR bb) PCV-15 followed by PPSV-23 at least 1 year later. b) For PPSV-23 vaccine ONLY (at any age): aa) PCV-20 at least 1 year after prior PPSV-23 OR bb) PCV-15 at least 1 year after prior PPSV-23 c) For PCV-13 vaccine ONLY (at any age): aa) PCV-20 at least 1 year after prior PCV13 OR bb) PPSV-23 at least 1 year after prior PCV13 d) For PCV-13 vaccine (at any age) AND PPSV-23 BEFORE 65 years: aa) PCV-20 at least 5 years after last pneumococcal vaccine dose OR bb) PPSV-23 at least 5 years after last pneumococcal vaccine dose e) Received PCV-13 at Any Age AND PPSV-23 AFTER age [AGE] Years: aa) Use shared clinical decision-making to decide whether to administer PCV20. If so, the dose of PCV-20 should be administered at least 5 years after the last pneumococcal vaccine. Review of 3 of 5 sampled residents for vaccinations identified: 1) R9 was [AGE] years old and admitted to the facility in June of 2023. R9 had received the PCV-13 on 4/13/15, and the PPSV-23 on 2/13/17 prior to her admission. Per CDC guidelines, the facility failed to initiate a shared clinical decision-making discussion to decide whether to administer one dose of PCV20 at least 5 years after the last pneumococcal vaccine dose. Regardless of whether PCV20 is administered, R9's pneumococcal vaccinations were complete. 2) R92 was [AGE] years old and admitted to the facility in August of 2023. R92 had received the PCV-13 on 8/24/15, and the PPSV-23 on 7/9/17 prior to his admission. Per CDC guidelines, the facility failed to initiate a shared clinical decision-making discussion to decide whether to administer one dose of PCV20 at least 5 years after the last pneumococcal vaccine dose. Regardless of whether PCV20 is administered, R92's pneumococcal vaccinations were complete. 3) R103 was [AGE] years old and admitted to the facility in January of 2024. R103 had received the PCV-13 on 4/2/15, and the PPSV-23 on 10/12/17 prior to his admission. Per CDC guidelines, the facility failed to initiate a shared clinical decision-making discussion to decide whether to administer one dose of PCV20 at least 5 years after the last pneumococcal vaccine dose. Regardless of whether PCV20 is administered, R103's pneumococcal vaccinations were complete. During interview on 2/14/24 at 8:36 a.m., registered nurse (RN)-D explained to keep vaccination statuses updated, a report was run twice weekly on newly admitted residents and vaccine status was reviewed with each resident. If a resident was due for a particular vaccination, RN-D would discuss this the resident, gain consent or declination and update their electronic health record (EHR). RN-D would administer the vaccination if the resident consented and update an internal spreadsheet. RN-D stated the facility used the CDC's 2024 guidelines to determine if a resident was due for a pneumococcal vaccination, and the facility currently implementing a new process of driving the conversation between providers and residents and/or representatives if due for a pneumococcal vaccination. During interview on 2/15/24 at 9:06 a.m., RN-D reiterated the facility was in the process of implementing a new system to identify residents who were eligible for additional doses of the pneumococcal vaccination based on shared clinical decision-making. RN-D reviewed the internal spreadsheet and was able to identify R103 as flagged for review to initiate the shared clinical decision-making discussion. RN-D verified that R9 and R92 were not flagged on the spreadsheet and stated they would be flagged. Facility policy titled Pneumococcal Vaccines for Residents dated 3/18/22, indicated the facility's policy was to provide education and administration of the PPSV23 and PCV13 to the residents of the facility according to CDC recommendations.
Aug 2023 4 deficiencies
CONCERN (D) 📢 Someone Reported This

A family member, employee, or ombudsman was alarmed enough to file a formal complaint

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Deficiency F0676 (Tag F0676)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ambulate with 1 of 1 resident (R2) reviewed for restorative nursing. Findings include: R2's annual Minimum Data Set (MDS) d...

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Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ambulate with 1 of 1 resident (R2) reviewed for restorative nursing. Findings include: R2's annual Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated , 7/28/23, indicated intact cognition, and required supervision with one-person physical assistance for ambulation in room. The MDS further indicated non-completion of any restorative nursing activities for R2 during the assessment period. R2's care plan identified R2 as alert and oriented and able to communicate his needs, wants and concerns. The approach was to allow R2 to voice needs, wants, and concerns. The care plan indicated R2 was unable to ambulate independently related to unsteady gait and balance. The care plan directed staff to call family when R2 refuses ambulation, to monitor and document R2's participation in restorative programs, to do a monthly review and evaluation about the progression and need to change the program, and to implement the restorative nursing program, where R2 will ambulate at least twice daily, preferably to all destinations using contact guard assist (CGA) with a gait belt. The treatment order dated 2/10/23, directed staff to walk with R2 twice a day as tolerated, CGA with gait belt. The treatment order also directed staff to sign ambulation program sheet in R2's room. An ambulation program sheet posted in R2's room indicated R2 ambulated on 8/10/23 at the afternoon shift, on 8/11/23 at the afternoon shift, on 8/14/23 at the afternoon shift, and on 8/22/23 at the morning shift. The treatment administration record (TAR) dated 7/24/23 through 8/23/23 showed seven days when R2 ambulated twice in a day, eight days when R2 ambulated once a day, and 16 days when R2 did not ambulate at all. The TAR documented the reasons for not completing the task including refusal (14 times), went to activity/unavailable (4 times), walked with family (3 times), and did not get done/floor busy (9 times). During observation and interview on 8/23/23 at 12:56 p.m., R2 stated he was supposed to be walked twice a day, but it was not being done. R2 stated, They're busy. R2 said, somebody walked with me once yesterday. At 2:22 p.m., R2 denied that he ever refused ambulation. R2 further said, I will walk with them [staff] if they asked. During interview on 8/23/23 at 2:36 p.m., NA-A stated that there are tasks such as baths and ambulation being missed because the unit is very demanding with call lights, and many residents use Hoyer lifts. NA-A verified R2 on ambulation program and needed to be walked twice a day. NA-A continued to say, but a lot of times don't, we just can't, we're busy. During interview on 08/24/23 at 2:30 p.m., NA-C stated, [R2] is supposed to be walked two times a day but sometimes it is not done, he is walking really slow. NA-C also stated sometimes they would not have time to ambulate residents. During interview on 8/24/23 at 4:00 p.m., the director of nursing (DON) verified that R2 was not ambulated as scheduled. The DON also acknowledged the importance of following restorative therapy orders. During interview on 8/25/23 at 11:35 a.m., the director of rehabilitation services (DRS) stated that restorative nursing is an important piece on keeping mobility and function. The DRS stated expectation that restorative care recommendations are being followed. The policy no. RNS_001, titled, BHS Restorative Program, provides the basic outline and guidance for implementation and tracking of restorative programs established so that each resident can attain and maintain highest physical, mental and psychosocial wellbeing. The policy indicates that restorative nursing promotes resident's highest level of independence in certain areas including ambulation and mobility. The policy also provides that therapy will develop written plan recommending restorative interventions. The policy directs the therapist to collaborate with the registered nurse, the resident, the resident's responsible party, or other designated facility associate for the implementation of the plan. The policy also indicates that the written plan includes frequency and duration, and specific instructions on how to implement the restorative nursing plan.
CONCERN (D) 📢 Someone Reported This

A family member, employee, or ombudsman was alarmed enough to file a formal complaint

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

ADL Care (Tag F0677)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ensure assistance with wearing compression socks for 1 of 1 resident (R2) reviewed for dressing. Findings include: R2's fac...

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Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ensure assistance with wearing compression socks for 1 of 1 resident (R2) reviewed for dressing. Findings include: R2's face sheet listed R2's diagnoses including ankylosing spondylitis of cervicothoracic region (damage to the spine), coronary atherosclerosis (narrowing of the arteries) due to lipid rich plaque, benign prostatic hyperplasia with urinary obstruction, chronic kidney disease, and carcinoma in situ of the skin of trunk. R2's annual Minimum Data Set (MDS) dated , 7/28/23, indicated intact cognition, and needed supervision with one-person physical assistance with dressing. R2's care area assessment (CAA) triggered for activities of daily living (ADLs). R2's care plan indicated that R2 is alert and oriented and able to communicate needs, wants, and concerns. The care plan indicated for allowing R2 to voice his needs, wants, and concerns. The care plan also indicated R1 had self-care deficit, and the care plan directed staff to assist with dressing. The orders dated 12/16/23, indicated R2 needed to wear knee high TEDS (compression socks), which should be put on during the daytime and off at nighttime. The treatment administration record (TAR) dated 8/23 indicated that R2 wore or had TEDS on most of the days of the month, including on 8/22/23 and 8/23/23. However, this record for 8/22/23 and 8/23/23 conflicted with the observations and information from interviews as noted below. During observation on 8/22/23 at 3:51 p.m., R2 was at the common TV area, talking with 2 other residents. R2 did not have TEDS on. During observation and interview on 8/23/23 at 12:56 p.m., R2 was not wearing TEDS. R2 stated he was supposed to wear TEDS but did not have them on for a month now saying that they could not find them. R2 stated that when staff took his clothes to the laundry, they included the TEDS and were never brought back, and none was put on since. During interview on 8/23/23 at 3:14 p.m., RN-C stated R2 had been refusing to wear his TEDS. RN-C and RN-B verified that R2, who was at the dining room playing BINGO at the time, was not wearing TEDS. During interview on 8/24/23 at 4:00 p.m., the director of nursing (DON) acknowledged the importance of following treatment orders, and the importance of documentation to monitor and evaluate effectiveness of interventions. The policy titled, Comprehensive Assessments and Care Planning, with latest review date of 7/2/18, directs all qualified staff to implement all person-centered care plans. The policy indicates that interventions may be communicated through the electronic health record, resident profile, assignment sheets, and/or verbal communication.
CONCERN (D) 📢 Someone Reported This

A family member, employee, or ombudsman was alarmed enough to file a formal complaint

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Pressure Ulcer Prevention (Tag F0686)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

Based on interview and record review, the facility did not ensure completion of wound treatment as ordered for 1 of 1 resident (R2) reviewed for pressure ulcer. Findings include: R2's annual MDS dated...

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Based on interview and record review, the facility did not ensure completion of wound treatment as ordered for 1 of 1 resident (R2) reviewed for pressure ulcer. Findings include: R2's annual MDS dated , 7/28/23, indicated R2's stage two pressure ulcer. The MDS also indicated R2 was undergoing pressure ulcer care. R's care plan, dated 7/25/23, identified a pressure ulcer/shearing on R2's right shoulder from lying on the same area. The care plan directed staff to assess and treat the pressure ulcer as ordered. The history of treatment orders for R2's pressure ulcer on right shoulder are as follows: -Started on 2/22/23 and discontinued (dc/d) on 7/25/23 - Mepilex dressing every 7 days, once a day on Monday from 2:30 p.m. to 10:30 p.m. -Started on 7/26/23 and dc/d on 7/25/23 - Tegaderm dressing every other day at 9:00 a.m. -Started on 7/25/23 and dc/d on 8/2/23 - Apply xeroform gauze and cover with dressing every other day until healed at 9:00 a.m. -Started on 8/2/23 and dc/d on 8/7/23 - Change dressing every 5 days, cleanse well with soap and water before dressing placed, use Mepilex dressing. -Started on 8/7/23 and current - Change dressing ever 5 days, cleanse well with soap and water before dressing placed. Use Mepilex dressing. The Treatment Administration Record (TAR) dated 6/23/23 to 8/23/23 showed that staff did not consistently follow the orders for pressure ulcer treatments, as follows: -The order for Mepilex dressing every 7 days on Mondays which was in place until discontinuation on 7/25/23, the records show R2 received treatments on 6/26/23, 7/3/23, 7/17/23, but did not receive treatments on 7/10/23, and 7/24/23. The record indicates R2 went without wound treatment for 14 days from 7/3/23 to 7/17/23. -The order on 7/25/23 to apply xeroform gauze and cover with dressing every other day until healed at 9:00 a.m., the records show R2 was on this treatment on 7/27/23, 7/31/23, and 8/2/23. R2 did not receive treatment on 7/29/23. The order was discontinued on 8/2/23. -The order to use Mepilex dressing and change every 5 days, cleanse well with soap and water before dressing placed, which was ordered on 8/2/23, showed that the treatment did not start until 8/7/23. The records also show staff did not provide wound treatments as scheduled on 8/17/23 and 8/22/23. R2's medication orders include an antibiotic, doxycycline hyclate capsule 100 milligrams (mg) twice a day that started 8/8/23 to 8/22/23. The progress notes showed that on 8/8/23, R2's family brought a bottle of antibiotic from dermatology clinic stating that R2's laboratory results showed staphylococcus (bacterial) infection. During interview on 8/25/23 at 11:32 a.m., registered nurse (RN)-D, identified self as the wound nurse who takes care of R2's pressure wound on right shoulder. RN-D stated R2's pressure wound was chronic and stagnant at this point. RN-D also stated she was not aware about R2's wound infection and that she was not treating an infection to the wound. RN-D indicated that the dermatology clinic oversees ordering treatments for the wound to include dressing changes. RN-D stated that both the facility staff nurses and herself are to follow wound care orders. RN-D emphasized that although she visits residents and would do wound care, hers should be an extra dressing change or wound care, and staff are still expected to follow wound care/dressing changes as scheduled. During interview on 8/25/23 at 12:23 p.m., the nurse practitioner (NP) stated that R2's family are the ones who informed the facility about the infection on R2's right shoulder wound. The NP indicated she did not review test results, nor did she get a report from dermatology about the infection. The NP stated she was not aware that treatments orders for R2's wound were not consistently implemented. During interview on 8/25/23 at 2:44 p.m., RN-E identified herself as the nurse with the dermatologist. RN-E confirmed they saw R2 on 8/1/23 and did a culture on the right scapula wound, which showed positive for bacterial infection. RN-E stated their office prescribed doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 2 weeks. RN-E also stated a possible cause of the infection could be failure to complete wound dressings regularly. The policy no. POL_NS1702, titled, Prevention and Treatment of Skin Breakdown/Pressure Injury, undated, indicates under its purpose statement that maintaining intact skin is integral to resident health and wellness. The statement also indicates that care and service are delivered to maintain skin integrity and promote skin healing if skin breakdown should occur. The policy provides that residents who experience break in skin integrity or wounds are provided care and service to heal the skin according to professional standards of care. The policy lists the guidelines to be followed if a resident has impaired skin integrity including evaluation of pressure reduction intervention and revise patient-centered care plan, and notification to the attending provider, resident/resident representative and supervisor if the skin injury has not shown progress in 2 weeks and/or is deteriorating unexpectedly, and re-evaluation of the plan of care as appropriate.
CONCERN (D) 📢 Someone Reported This

A family member, employee, or ombudsman was alarmed enough to file a formal complaint

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Deficiency F0802 (Tag F0802)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ensure timely assistance with nutritional services ...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and document review, the facility failed to ensure timely assistance with nutritional services for 3 of 4 residents (R1, R2, and R6) reviewed for dining. Findings include: R1's quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS), dated [DATE], indicated R1 was totally dependent on staff for activities of daily living (ADLs) including eating. The MDS identified R1's weight as 97 pounds and indicated R1 lost weight of 5% or more within the last month, 10 % or more within the last 6 months. The MDS also indicated R1 was on mechanically altered diet. R1's care plan identified a focus area related to R1's difficulty to make self-understood and to understand others due to severe cognitive impairment. The care plan described R1 as non-verbal and does not make needs known. The care plan directed staff to implement the following approaches, including communication and provision of liquids and food as needed, and anticipation of R1's needs. The care plan also identified R1's altered nutritional status as evidenced by weight loss, and due to chewing/swallowing difficulty, self-feeding difficulty, and insufficient oral intake at meals. The care plan indicated R1's weight loss of more than 10 % in 6 months. The care plan directed staff to implement approaches that include help with set-up and physical assistance during meals, to encourage R1 to eat slowly, and to monitor and record R1's food intake. R1's meal intake records for the last 3 months (5/24/23 through 8/22/23), showed that R1 did not have regular breakfast meals, as follows: -From 5/24/23 to 5/31/23 (eight days), there were three breakfast meals and the average intakes noted on: 5/29/23 at 1-25%, 5/30/23 at 1-25%, and 5/31/23 at 51-75%. -From 6/1/23 to 6/30/23 (30 days), there were two breakfast meals and the average intakes noted on: 6/6/23 at 26-50%, and 6/8/23 at 26-50%. -From 7/1/23 to 7/31/23 (31 days), there were eight breakfast meals and the average intakes noted on: 7/1/23 with 51-75%, 7/6/23 with 1-25%, 7/7/23 with 1-25%, 7/9/23 with 51-75%, 7/10/23 with 26-50%, 7/13/23 with 1-25%, 7/19/23 with 1-25%, 7/27/23 with 1-25%. -From 8/1/23 to 8/22/23 (22 days), there were two breakfast meals and the average intakes noted on: 8/1/23 with 76-100%, and 8/10/23 with 1-25%. During observations on 8/23/23 at 8:40 a.m., R1 was in her room, lying in bed, awake and moving her head. -From 8:42 a.m. to 9:18 a.m., nursing assistant (NA)-A entered R1's room and talked to R1 about getting ready for the day. NA-A completed morning cares and then NA-B came in to help transfer R1 from bed to her wheelchair (with reclining back), and then NA-A pushed R1's chair to the common TV area in front of the nurses' station at 9:25 a.m. -At 9:27 a.m. NA-A brought R1's food for breakfast, identified as pancake and thickened apple juice. NA-A started feeding R1. -At 9:32 a.m., NA-A stopped feeding R1, stood up holding the leftover food and drink, and started to walk towards the main dining room. NA-A stated R1 kept her mouth closed that indicated R1 did not want any more food. NA-A also stated R1 took sips of the apple juice and about 50% of the pancake. NA-A added that it would take an hour or more to feed R1 and that her husband always comes here to feed her. During an interview on 8/22/23 at 4:31 p.m. FM-A stated observations that the facility is very short with workers and cannot feed residents during breakfast. FM-A added that some residents at dining reported to him that staff would only give R1 a couple of bites and that would be it for breakfast. FM-A stated he feels the need to be at the facility to feed R1 lunch and dinner, saying with the reports that he gets, he was unsure if R1 was being fed her breakfast. During an interview on 8/23/23 at 12:17 p.m., registered nurse (RN)-A identified herself as R1's hospice nurse and stated that R1 had been declining within the last year, mainly losing weight. RN-A stated that it takes long time for R1 to eat and was probably exerting more effort in eating than her intakes. RN-A stated R1's husband was here almost everyday spending six hours with her. During an interview on 8/24/23 at 2:30 p.m., NA-C described R1 as very difficult to feed, and that feeding would take a long time. R2's annual MDS dated , 7/28/23, indicated intact cognition, supervision with one-person physical assistance for dressing, and independent with set-up assistance for eating. R2's care area assessment (CAA) triggered for nutritional status and ADLs. R2's care plan indicated alteration in nutrition due to difficulty swallowing and increased need for protein related to having pressure wound on shoulder and cancer of the skin and trunk. The care plan directed staff to implement approaches including set-up for meals. During observation on 8/23/23 at 9:17 a.m., R2 was observed moving per wheelchair, in the hallway from his room and towards the common television (TV) area. R2 proceeded to the dining room and went straight to the beverage cart in front of the kitchen counter and poured coffee for himself. R2 also picked a piece of bread from the kitchen countertop, and took a napkin from the counter top, and moved self to a table to eat and drink. There was no staff member in the dining area. During observation on 8/25/23 at 9:06 a.m., R2 went through the dining room and into the kitchenette, looking and moving around in the area. R6, who was alone eating at one table and looking at R2 stated that R2 always does that going there looking for food indicating R2 goes behind the kitchen counter. R6 also said, We help ourselves because there's no one around most of the time. R6 further stated that however, residents should only get food from the front of the kitchenette counter and not go inside the kitchenette or go past the counter like R2 did. During observation on 8/25/23 at 9:08 a.m., the director of nursing (DON) entered the dining area and approached R2, who indicated he wanted a cup of hot chocolate. The DON helped with R2's request and served a cup of drink to R2 at a table by the piano in the dining room. When the DON left the dining area at about 9:10 a.m., R2 went back to the kitchenette counter and took a muffin and returned to his table to eat. No observation was made of R2 receiving a balanced breakfast including protein or other food groups. R6's quarterly MDS dated [DATE], indicated moderate cognitive impairment. The MDS indicated R6 was independent but needed help for set-up during meals. During observation on 8/25/23 at 9:01 a.m., R6 was eating by herself at a table in the dining room. R6 went towards the kitchenette and stopped at the beverage cart, which was parked in front of the kitchenette counter, and poured herself a glass of milk. There was no staff around at the dining area. On 8/25/23 at 9:06 a.m., R6 indicated residents help themselves for breakfast because most of the time, there was no staff around. No observation was made of R6 receiving a balanced breakfast including protein or other food groups. During interview on 8/23/23 at 9:07 a.m., RN-B stated that it is impossible for two NAs and one nurse to get all the 24 residents in this unit up before 9:00 a.m. because many residents use lift devices, which also require two persons to use them. RN-B said the NAs do morning cares to prepare residents up for the day, and then we have to answer the call lights in between. RN-B also stated by 9:00 a.m., the culinary aide leaves this unit to go serve other units, so nursing staff are then expected to prepare and serve breakfast to the residents they get up. RN-B further stated, Aside from doing nursing cares, we do dining as well if we have time, but we can't do it all. During interview on 8/25/23 at 2:05 p.m., the administrator verified that some of the mobile residents go to the beverage cart and get drinks for themselves and also pick up bread from the tray set on the kitchen counter top. The administrator stated expectations that staff members should be the ones preparing and serving food and drinks to the residents. During interview on 8/25/23 at 2:23 p.m., the DON verified she prepared and served chocolate drink for R2, who was then looking for food and drink at about 9:08 a.m., when there was no other staff in the dining room. The policy titled, Comprehensive Assessments and Care Planning, with latest review date of 7/2/18, directs all qualified staff to implement all person-centered care plans. The policy indicates that interventions may be communicated through the electronic health record, resident profile, assignment sheets, and/or verbal communication.
Dec 2022 3 deficiencies
CONCERN (D) 📢 Someone Reported This

A family member, employee, or ombudsman was alarmed enough to file a formal complaint

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Comprehensive Care Plan (Tag F0656)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and document review, the facility failed to ensure fall interventions were included on the care plan for 1 of...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and document review, the facility failed to ensure fall interventions were included on the care plan for 1 of 2 (R253) residents reviewed for falls. R253's admission Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment dated [DATE], included intact cognition and diagnosis of unspecified fracture of shaft of left ulna, subsequent encounter for closed fracture with routine healing. It further included R253 required extensive assistance with all activities of daily living (ADL)'s except eating, and had two falls with fractures prior to admission. R253's fall risk assessment dated [DATE], included 3 or more falls in last 3 months, not steady moving from seated to standing position, and only able to stabilize with human assistance. It further included R253 was not steady moving on/off toilet, only able to stabilize with human assistance, left upper extremity fracture and takes blood pressure medications. R253's progress note dated 2/11/22, included Patient is at facility post fall. Patient originally fell at apartment and broke her left wrist and was in a TCU. The day before her discharge date patient fell again and broke her elbow. Patient just had surgery on her left elbow. Writer spoke with patient and daughter (power of attorney) in regards to placing bed alarms, they agreed. Patient is do not resuscitate (DNR), regular diet and liquids. Assist of 2 (A2) with walker pivot. Writer has been doing A2 wheelchair since time of arrival due to weakness related to exhaustion. Patient stated she is mostly continent of bowel and bladder but does need help at nighttime. R253's baseline care plan dated 2/13/22, included history of repeated falls, patient here to regain strength, endurance, and independence related to post fall with left olecranon fracture on top of a 1 month old left radius/ulnar fracture that was treated with splint. Bed alarm. Chair alarm. R253's comprehensive care plan dated 3/2/22, lacked indications of being at risk for falls or interventions to prevent them. During an interview on 11/30/22, at 10:00 a.m. registered nurse (RN)-C stated the admitting nurse was responsible for initiating the care plan. RN-C further stated the care plan should include if the resident was a fall risk and verified R253's comprehensive care plan lacked indications of repeated falls or interventions. During an interview on 11/30/22, at 10:15 a.m. RN-D stated when residents are admitted to the TCU, the admitting nurse will complete a baseline care plan observation. Then the MDS nurses will initiate the care plan in the computer. Anything that's been triggered woud require a care plan. RN-D verified falls was triggered on the MDS but R253's care plan lacked indication R253 was a fall risk or interventions to prevent them. During an interview on 11/30/22, at 10:14 a.m. the MDS nurse RN-E stated we (MDS), are responsible for the comprehensive care plans which come from the care area assessments (CAA)'s we trigger on the MDS which is hopefully by day 21. RN-E also verified R253's comprehensive care plan wasn't completed and falls should have been included. During an interview on 12/1/22, at 12:16 p.m. the director of nursing (DON) stated she expected fall risk interventions to be included on the care plan for a resident who was at risk for falls. The facility's policy on comprehensive care plans dated 7/2/18, included care area assessment process provides a framework for guiding the review of triggered areas and clarification of a resident's functional status and related cause of impairments. It also provides a basis for additional assessment if potential issues, including related risk factors. the assessment of the causes and contributing factors give the team additonal information to assist in the development of a comprehensive plan of care.
CONCERN (D)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Deficiency F0757 (Tag F0757)

Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident

**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and document review the facility failed to ensure an ongoing review of antibiotic use for 1 of 3 residents (R...

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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and document review the facility failed to ensure an ongoing review of antibiotic use for 1 of 3 residents (R87) reviewed who was prescribed oral antibiotics. Findings include: R87's quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment dated [DATE], included diagnoses of bursitis (inflammation of bursae, the fluid filled sacs that cushion the joints. This causes pain, swelling and stiffness around the joint) of left knee and cellulitis (A serious bacterial infection of the skin. Usually affects the leg and the skin appears as swollen and red and painful.) of left lower limb. R87 did not have other infections identified. R87 received an antibiotic seven out of seven days in the look back period. R87's Physician's orders dated 8/31/22, included Cephalexin 500 milligrams by mouth four times a day. Long-term treatment per nurse practioner (NP). The order lacked any indication of an end date R87's medication administration record from 6/30/22 through 11/30/22, indicated she had received Cephalexin consistently since the start date of 6/30/22. R87's care plan printed 8/18/22, lacked a focus area for infection or extended antibiotic use. R87's provider visit notes dated (7/11/22, 7/14/22, 7/19/22, 7/26/22, 7/28/22, 8/2/22, 8/4/22, 8/9/22, 8/11/22, 10/12/22, and 11/11/22) lacked mention for indication and duration of extended antibiotic use. During an interview on 11/30/22, at 2:20 p.m., registered nurse (RN)-B stated R87 was being treated with the antibiotic (Cephalexin) prophylactic and she had asked the provider for an end date. RN-B was unable to provide documentation she had spoken to the provider. During interview and document review on 12/1/22, at 10:20 a.m. the Infection Preventionist (IP) verified R87 started taking Cephalexin on 6/30/22 and the order did not have an end date. The IP stated the process for a resident who has a prescription for an antibiotic with no end date would be to email the clinical manager to find out why the resident is on an antibiotic and why it doesn't have an end date. The IP further verified R87 was taking the antibiotic prophylactic and when she was first admitted she asked about an end date. The IP stated they brought it up to the nurse practioner, who didn't want to give a stop date and then when R87 went to long term care (LTC), the IP asked for an end date again. The provider still didn't want a stop date, so she stopped inquiring about it. The IP stated she doesn't have any documentation regarding communication between the clinical manager or the provider and stated I was under the impression that it was just a long term antibiotic and she (R87) would be on it forever. During interview on 12/1/22, at 10:50 a.m. the consulting pharmacist stated antibiotics should have an end date except in a few rare cases. He further stated being on an antibiotic for an extended period of time increases the risk of antibiotic resistance and Clostridium difficile (C-diff) (Infection of the large intestine (colon) caused by the bacteria Clostridium difficile. Long-term use of antibiotics reduces the normal bacterial population in the intestine and triggers the C. difficile overgrowth in the intestine During interview on 12/01/22, at 12:16 p.m. the director of nursing (DON) stated the process for a resident who receives a prescription for an antibiotic without an end date would be to check the diagnoses and ask the provider for clarification on a stop date. The DON further stated the facility failed to get clarification for a stop date for R87's antibiotic and they didn't have appropriate documention. The facility's antibiotic stewardship program policy last reviewed 9/2/22, included it is the policy of Benedictine health services and associates to practice antibiotic stewardship, which involves following the basic practices of: right diagnosis, right drug, right dose, right duration and right route of administration. It further indicates the duration should include the antibiotics start and stop date.
CONCERN (F)

Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed

Food Safety (Tag F0812)

Could have caused harm · This affected most or all residents

Based on observation, interview and document review, the facility failed to ensure food was properly stored and labeled to prevent foodborne illness for 107 residents who consumed food from the kitche...

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Based on observation, interview and document review, the facility failed to ensure food was properly stored and labeled to prevent foodborne illness for 107 residents who consumed food from the kitchen. In addition, the facility failed to properly clean six of six ice maker machines which had the potential to affect 98 of 107 residents who consumed ice from the ice machines. Findings include: During an initial tour of the facility kitchen with the culinary director (CD) on 11/28/22, at 12:15 p.m. the following food items were observed to be not dated or had expired per facility policy: Walk-in refrigerator: -a package of opened raw bacon; container approximately 3 lbs, with white discoloration was 1/4 full, opened date 11/16/22. Walk-in freezer: -a repackaged freezer bag of hamburger patties, approximately 3 lbs with visible freezer burn was 1/2 full, dated 10/21/22. When interviewed on 11/28/22, at 12:15 p.m. the CD stated opened refrigerated packages of meat expired after seven days. The CD stated if food or drink was not dated when opened, it should be removed to avoid potential food borne illnesses. The CD also stated repackaged frozen meats expired after one month. TRANSITIONAL CARE UNIT (TCU) During a tour of the TCU kitchen on 11/28/22, at 1:15 p.m. with the cook (C)-A, the following food items were observed to be not dated or expired: TCU Upright freezer: -a repackaged freezer bag of hamburger patties, approximately 3 lbs with visible freezer burn was 1/2 full, without a label or expiration date. ICE MACHINES: During observation on 11/29/22, at 1:55 p.m. six ice machines throughout the facility (Evergreen Terrace, Oak Crossing, CJ, TCU, Cypress Court, Cedar Terrace), had a moderate amount of flaky white debris on the drainage trays and around the ice dispensing nozzle. The facility's kitchenette cleaning logs dated 11/14/22 through 11/20/22, indicated the following: 1. on unit Evergreen Terrace the nightly cleaning of the ice machine was not documented as completed during the seven day period 2. on unit Oak Crossing/ Oak Crest, the nightly cleaning of the ice machine not documented as completed during the seven day period 3. on CJ the nightly cleaning of the ice machine for 11/16/22 not documented as completed 4. on Cypress Court the cleaning of the ice machine was not documented as completed during the seven day period 5. on Cedar Terrace the cleaning of the ice machine for 11/20/22 was not documented as completed. When interviewed together on 11/29/22, at 1:55 p.m. registered nurse (RN)-A, TMA-B, and TMA-C, stated staff used the kitchenette ice machines daily when residents requested fresh water and ice. RN-A stated she was not aware who was responsible for cleaning or the maintenance of the ice machines. When interviewed on 11/29/22, at 2:07 p.m. the culinary supervisor (CS) stated staff use the ice machines for residents when they want ice with their water and to keep food cool in serving trays. The CS stated the white residue on the ice machines is calcium buildup from the machines not being cleaned. The CS stated the outside of the ice machines are to be cleaned by culinary staff every single day. The CS also stated the inside of the ice machines are to be cleaned every three months. The CS was not able to provide the three month internal cleaning log for the ice machines. When interviewed on 11/29/22, at 2:55 p.m. the CD stated the culinary staff are to clean the outside of the ice machine daily. CD stated that the inside of the ice machine is to be cleaned by Smartcare every three to six months. CD was not able to provide a copy of the Smartcare cleaning log. CD stated that the white flaky debris on the drainage trays and around the ice dispensing nozzle is calcium buildup and needs to be addressed. When interviewed on 11/30/22, at 2:29 p.m. the CD stated the ice machines in the kitchenettes of each unit had not been cleaned per the facilities policy and procedure and should have been. The CD stated the built up on the machines which could have caused resident illness. The facility food storage policy was requested and not provided. Facility policy titled Ice Storage and Handling, undated, identified the ice machine should be cleaned at least every three months following manufacturer directions. The outside of the machine would be sanitized by culinary staff.
Understanding Severity Codes (click to expand)
Life-Threatening (Immediate Jeopardy)
J - Isolated K - Pattern L - Widespread
Actual Harm
G - Isolated H - Pattern I - Widespread
Potential for Harm
D - Isolated E - Pattern F - Widespread
No Harm (Minor)
A - Isolated B - Pattern C - Widespread

Questions to Ask on Your Visit

  • "Can I speak with families of current residents?"
  • "What's your RN coverage like on weekends and overnight?"

Our Honest Assessment

Strengths
  • • 40% turnover. Below Minnesota's 48% average. Good staff retention means consistent care.
Concerns
  • • 23 deficiencies on record, including 1 serious (caused harm) violation. Ask about corrective actions taken.
  • • $19,645 in fines. Above average for Minnesota. Some compliance problems on record.
Bottom line: Mixed indicators with Trust Score of 63/100. Visit in person and ask pointed questions.

About This Facility

What is Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake's CMS Rating?

CMS assigns Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake an overall rating of 4 out of 5 stars, which is considered above average nationally. Within Minnesota, this rating places the facility higher than 99% of the state's 100 nursing homes. This rating reflects solid performance across the metrics CMS uses to evaluate nursing home quality.

How is Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake Staffed?

CMS rates Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake's staffing level at 5 out of 5 stars, which is much above average compared to other nursing homes. Staff turnover is 40%, compared to the Minnesota average of 46%. This relatively stable workforce can support continuity of care.

What Have Inspectors Found at Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake?

State health inspectors documented 23 deficiencies at Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake during 2022 to 2024. These included: 1 that caused actual resident harm and 22 with potential for harm. Deficiencies causing actual harm indicate documented cases where residents experienced negative health consequences.

Who Owns and Operates Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake?

Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake is owned by a non-profit organization. Non-profit facilities reinvest revenue into operations rather than distributing to shareholders. The facility operates independently rather than as part of a larger chain. With 138 certified beds and approximately 123 residents (about 89% occupancy), it is a mid-sized facility located in WHITE BEAR LAKE, Minnesota.

How Does Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake Compare to Other Minnesota Nursing Homes?

Compared to the 100 nursing homes in Minnesota, Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake's overall rating (4 stars) is above the state average of 3.2, staff turnover (40%) is near the state average of 46%, and health inspection rating (3 stars) is at the national benchmark.

What Should Families Ask When Visiting Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake?

Based on this facility's data, families visiting should ask: "Can I visit during a mealtime to observe dining assistance and food quality?" "How do you handle medical emergencies, and what is your hospital transfer rate?" "Can I speak with family members of current residents about their experience?"

Is Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake Safe?

Based on CMS inspection data, Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake has a clean safety record: no substantiated abuse findings (meaning no confirmed cases of resident harm), no Immediate Jeopardy citations (the most serious violation level indicating risk of serious injury or death), and is not on the Special Focus Facility watch list (a federal program monitoring the lowest-performing 1% of nursing homes). The facility has a 4-star overall rating and ranks #1 of 100 nursing homes in Minnesota. While no facility is perfect, families should still ask about staff-to-resident ratios and recent inspection results during their visit.

Do Nurses at Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake Stick Around?

Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake has a staff turnover rate of 40%, which is about average for Minnesota nursing homes (state average: 46%). Moderate turnover is common in nursing homes, but families should still ask about staff tenure and how the facility maintains care continuity when employees leave.

Was Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake Ever Fined?

Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake has been fined $19,645 across 1 penalty action. This is below the Minnesota average of $33,275. While any fine indicates a compliance issue, fines under $50,000 are relatively common and typically reflect isolated problems that were subsequently corrected. Families should ask what specific issues led to these fines and confirm they've been resolved.

Is Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake on Any Federal Watch List?

Cerenity Care Center White Bear Lake is not on any federal watch list. The most significant is the Special Focus Facility (SFF) program, which identifies the bottom 1% of nursing homes nationally based on persistent, serious quality problems. Not being on this list means the facility has avoided the pattern of deficiencies that triggers enhanced federal oversight. This is a positive indicator, though families should still review the facility's inspection history directly.