CONCERN
(D)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0558
(Tag F0558)
Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident
Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure the call light was within reach for one of 20 sampled residents (Resident 94).
This deficient practice had the potential to cause av...
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Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure the call light was within reach for one of 20 sampled residents (Resident 94).
This deficient practice had the potential to cause avoidable harm to Resident 94 from an inability to call staff for assistance and the potential for falls and associated injuries.
Cross Reference F-tag F656.
Findings:
During a review of Resident 94's admission Record, the record indicated the facility admitted Resident 94 on 2/13/2024. Resident 94's admitting diagnoses included difficulty walking, generalized muscle weakness, unsteadiness on his feet, and history of falling.
During a review of Resident 94's Minimum Data Set (MDS, a standardized assessment and care screening/planning tool), dated 2/17/2024, the MDS indicated Resident 94 required substantial to maximal assistance from staff when transferring between surfaces, and when transitioning from a sitting to standing position, a sitting to lying position, or a lying to sitting position.
During a review of Resident 94's medical record titled, Fall Risk Assessment, dated 2/13/2024, the record indicated Resident 94 experienced falls in the last three months and was at high risk for further falls.
During a review of Resident 94's care plans, dated 2/14/2024, the care plans indicated Resident 94 was at risk for falls. The goals of care included the minimization of risks for falls, and a decrease in significant injury resulting from falls. Staff interventions indicated to maintain call light within reach .
During a review of Resident 94's care plans, dated 2/25/2024, the care plans indicated Resident 94 had a communication impairment. The goals of care included Resident 94 being able to communicate his daily needs. Staff interventions indicated to keep Resident 94's call light within his reach.
During an observation on 3/18/2024 at 1:34 p.m., at Resident 94's bedside, observed Resident 94's call light plugged into the wall and hanging behind Resident 94's bed.
During an observation on 3/20/2024 at 10:17 a.m., at Resident 94's bedside, observed Resident 94's call light plugged into the wall and hanging behind Resident 94's bed.
During a concurrent observation and interview, on 3/20/2024 at 10:21 a.m., with Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 1, at Resident 94's bedside, LVN 1 stated residents used call lights when assistance was needed. LVN 1 stated the call lights were always supposed to be within the resident's reach. LVN 1 observed Resident 94's call light and stated Resident 94's call light was behind the bed and was not within the resident's reach. LVN 1 stated Resident 94 had a history of falls and stated Resident 94 not having his call light within reach increased his risk for experiencing another fall.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Falls and Fall Risk Managing, dated 6/2023, the P&P indicated the purpose of the policy was to identify interventions related to the resident's specific risks and causes to try to prevent the resident from falling and to try to minimize complications from falling. The P&P further indicated the staff .will identify appropriate interventions to reduce the risk of falls.
During a revie of the facility P&P titled Call Light, dated 4/2023, the P&P indicated the purpose of this procedure is to respond to the resident's requests and needs. The P&P further indicated that when the resident is in bed .be sure the call light is within easy reach of the resident.
CONCERN
(D)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Comprehensive Care Plan
(Tag F0656)
Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and record review, facility staff failed to implement or develop a resident-specific care plan for three of 2...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and record review, facility staff failed to implement or develop a resident-specific care plan for three of 20 sampled residents (Resident 40, Resident 94, and Resident 30) when the following occurred:
1. Resident 40's care plan did not indicate the level of assistance he required for eating and drinking.
2. Resident 94's care plans indicated his call light needed to be within reach, and Resident 94's call light was observed hanging behind his bed and not within reach.
3. Resident 30's care plan did not indicate a physician ordered medical appointment.
These deficient practices placed Resident 40 at risk of not receiving his required level of assistance while eating and drinking, creating the potential for avoidable weight loss, dehydration, or complications such as aspiration (when food, liquid, or other material enters a person's airway and eventually the lungs by accident). These deficient practices also placed Resident 94 at risk of being unable to call for help, creating the avoidable potential for falls or unmet care needs, and placed Resident 30 at risk of health decline by not adequately following up with a physician ordered medical appointment.
Cross Reference F-tag F656
Findings:
1. During a review of Resident 40's admission Record, the record indicated the facility admitted Resident 40 on 8/19/2019, and most recently re-admitted Resident 40 on 3/12/2024. Resident 40's admitting diagnoses included muscle wasting and atrophy (decrease in size or wasting away of a body part or tissue), protein-calorie malnutrition (a nutritional status with reduced availability of nutrients leading to changes in body composition and function), dysphagia (difficulty swallowing foods or liquids), and dysarthria (weakness in the muscles used for speech, which often causes slowed or slurred speech).
During a review of Resident 40's History and Physical (H&P), dated 3/15/2024, the H&P indicated Resident 40 did not have the capacity to understand and make decisions.
During a review of Resident 40's Minimum Data Set (MDS, a standardized assessment and care screening/planning tool), dated 2/14/2024, indicated Resident 40 had impairments to the upper and lower extremities on one side of his body that interfered with daily functions. The MDS indicated Resident 40 required partial to moderate assistance from staff to eat and drink. The MDS indicated Resident 40 experienced a weight loss of 5 percent (%) or more in the last month, or 10% or more in the last six months.
During a review of Resident 40's active physician orders, dated 3/12/2024, the orders indicated Resident 40 was on an altered texture diet (a diet where the texture of the food and liquids has been changed to allow it to be safely swallowed). The orders also indicated Resident 40 was receiving Lasix (furosemide, a medication that causes you to urinate more frequently).
During a review of Resident 40's care plans, dated 11/2/2020 and revised on 3/12/2024, the care plans indicated Resident 40 had altered nutritional needs related to decreased ability to eat independently. The care plan indicated Resident 40 experienced a 12 pound (lb., a unit for measuring weight) weight loss in the last three months. Goals of care included Resident 40 not experiencing any signs or symptoms of choking or dehydration, and Resident 40 consuming greater than 75% of all meals. Staff interventions did not indicate that Resident 40 required assistance with eating and drinking. There were no care plans to indicate Resident 40's required level of assistance with eating or drinking.
During an observation on 3/18/2024 at 3:27 p.m., at Resident 40's bedside, observed Resident 40's bedside table placed at the foot end of Resident 40's bed, with Resident 40's water pitcher on top of the bedside table.
During an interview on 3/20/2024 at 2:22 p.m., with Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) 2, CNA 2 stated she was instructed by licensed nursing staff to verbally encourage Resident 40 to eat and drink, and stated she was not informed that the resident required staff assistance to eat or drink. CNA 2 stated that if she saw Resident 40 struggling to eat or drink, she would assist him, but she did not stay at the resident's bedside for the duration of the meal.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 3/20/2024 at 2:33 p.m., with Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 1, LVN 1 stated Resident 40 required setup assistance for eating and drinking. LVN 1 stated setup assistance meant the staff would place Resident 40's meal tray in front of him and open any food and/or beverage containers but would not stay at the bedside to assist with the meal. LVN 1 stated she was not sure of how she determined Resident 40's required level of assistance. LVN 1 then reviewed Resident 40's care plans and stated that based on the care plan, Resident 40 had a decreased ability to eat independently and stated the care plan did not indicate what level of assistance Resident 40 required.
During an interview on 3/21/2024 at 12:49 p.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), the DON stated that Resident 40's care plan should include information related to the level of assistance required for eating and drinking. The DON stated that Resident 40 required staff to stay with him to assist with meals, and stated this was not indicated in the care plan. The DON stated it was important to have this information in the care plan to ensure staff were aware of the resident's needs and stated that staff being unaware of Resident 40's required level of assistance with ADLs put the resident at risk for malnutrition and dehydration.
2. During a review of Resident 94's admission Record, the record indicated the facility admitted Resident 94 on 2/13/2024. Resident 94's admitting diagnoses included difficulty walking, generalized muscle weakness, unsteadiness on his feet, and history of falling.
During a review of Resident 94's MDS, dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 94 required substantial to maximal assistance from staff when transferring between surfaces, and when transitioning from a sitting to standing position, a sitting to lying position, or a lying to sitting position.
During a review of Resident 94's medical record titled, Fall Risk Assessment, dated 2/13/2024, the record indicated Resident 94 had experienced falls in the last three months and was at high risk for further falls.
During a review of Resident 94's care plans, dated 2/14/2024, the care plans indicated Resident 94 was at risk for falls. The goals of care included the minimization of risks for falls, and a decrease in significant injury resulting from falls. Staff interventions indicated to maintain call light within reach .
During a review of Resident 94's care plans, dated 2/25/2024, the care plans indicated Resident 94 had a communication impairment. The goals of care included Resident 94 being able to communicate his daily needs. Staff interventions indicated to keep Resident 94's call light within his reach.
During an observation on 3/18/2024 at 1:34 p.m., at Resident 94's bedside, observed Resident 94's call light plugged into the wall and hanging behind Resident 94's bed.
During an observation on 3/20/2024 at 10:17 a.m., at Resident 94's bedside, observed Resident 94's call light plugged into the wall and hanging behind Resident 94's bed.
During a concurrent observation and interview, on 3/20/2024 at 10:21 a.m., with LVN 1, at Resident 94's bedside, LVN 1 stated residents used call lights when assistance was needed. LVN 1 stated the call lights were always supposed to be within the resident's reach. LVN 1 observed Resident 94's call light and stated Resident 94's call light was behind the bed and was not within his reach. LVN 1 stated Resident 94 had a history of falls and stated that Resident 94 not having his call light within reach increased his risk for experiencing another fall.
3. During a review of Resident 30's admission Record, the record indicated the facility admitted Resident 30 on 5/19/2021, and most recently re-admitted Resident 30 on 2/26/2024. Resident 30's admitting diagnoses included diabetes mellitus (a metabolic disease, involving inappropriately elevated blood sugar levels), end stage renal disease (ESRD, a condition in which the kidneys lose the ability to remove waste and balance fluids), heart failure (a chronic condition in which the heart does not pump blood adequately to the body), and malignant neoplasm of the kidney (a cancerous growth on the kidney).
During a review of Resident 30's H&P, dated 2/26/2024, the H&P indicated Resident 30 had the capacity to understand and make decisions.
During a review of Resident 30's MDS, dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 30 was severely cognitively impaired and had required substantial assistance (staff did more than half the effort) with eating, dressing, and oral/personal hygiene. The MDS indicated Resident 30 was dependent on staff for toileting hygiene, bathing, and putting on footwear.
During a review of Resident 30's general acute care hospital (GACH) discharge records, dated 2/26/2024, the GACH records indicated Resident 30 had an appointment with her primary care provider on 3/11/2024.
During a review of Resident 30's active physician orders, dated 2/26/2024, the orders indicated Resident 30 had an appointment with her primary care physician on 3/11/2024.
During a concurrent observation and interview on 3/18/2024, at 12:56 p.m., Resident 30 was observed awake, bed bound, and was being fed lunch by Family Member (FM) 1. Resident 30 was hard of hearing and had difficulty with speech. FM 1 stated Resident 30 missed her appointment with her doctor on 3/11/2024 even though he told the nurses a few weeks prior, and her appointment schedule was on the resident's hospital discharge papers.
During an interview on 3/21/2024, at 10:58 a.m., with the Social Service Assistant (SSA), the SSA stated Resident 30 did not go to her appointment on 3/11/2024. The SSA stated nursing had to inform her of the appointment 72 hours in advance to coordinate transportation.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 3/21/2024, at 11:19 a.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), the DON stated for any medical appointments nursing would ensure the order was in the chart and the care plan updated to communicate the treatment plan to the team. The DON stated nursing would complete an appointment form to give to social services to coordinate transportation, but social services should have run a report to see which residents have appointments. The DON stated there is nothing in the care plan indicating coordination of Resident 30's medical appointments.
During a review of the facility P&P titled, Referrals, Social Services, dated 12/2008, the P&P indicated the purpose of the policy is for social services to coordinate resident referrals with outside agencies, and for social services staff to collaborate with nursing staff or other disciplines to arrange for services ordered by the physician.
During a review of the facility P&P titled, Transportation, Social Services, dated 12/2008, the P&P indicated the purpose of the policy is for the social services department to help arrange transportation for residents as needed, and all inquiries regarding resident transportation will be made to social services.
During a review of the facility P&P titled, Comprehensive Care Planning, dated 8/2015, the P&P indicated the care plan must be reviewed and revised periodically . and on an ongoing basis and that care plans are driven not only by identified resident issues and/or conditions but also by the resident's unique .strengths and needs.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Baseline Care Plan, dated 10/2017, the P&P indicated the baseline care developed for each resident should include instructions needed to provide effective and resident centered care.
CONCERN
(D)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
ADL Care
(Tag F0677)
Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident
Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure staff were aware of the level of assistance required by one of two sampled residents (Resident 40) for completion of activities of d...
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Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure staff were aware of the level of assistance required by one of two sampled residents (Resident 40) for completion of activities of daily living (ADLs, activities related to personal care, including bathing or showering, dressing, getting in and out of bed or a chair, walking, using the toilet, and eating).
This deficient practice placed Resident 40 at risk of not receiving his required level of assistance while eating and drinking, creating the potential for Resident 40 to experience avoidable weight loss and dehydration, or complications such as aspiration (when food, liquid, or other material enters a person's airway and eventually the lungs by accident).
Cross Reference F-tag F656
Findings:
During a review of Resident 40's admission Record, the record indicated the facility admitted Resident 40 on 8/19/2019, and most recently re-admitted Resident 40 on 3/12/2024. Resident 40's admitting diagnoses included muscle wasting and atrophy (decrease in size or wasting away of a body part or tissue), protein-calorie malnutrition (a nutritional status with reduced availability of nutrients leading to changes in body composition and function), dysphagia (Difficulty swallowing foods or liquids), and dysarthria (weakness in the muscles used for speech, which often causes slowed or slurred speech).
During a review of Resident 40's History and Physical (H&P), dated 3/15/2024, the H&P indicated Resident 40 did not have the capacity to understand and make decisions.
During a review of Resident 40's Minimum Data Set (MDS, a standardized assessment and care screening/planning tool), dated 2/14/2024, indicated Resident 40 had impairments to the upper and lower extremities on one side of his body that interfered with daily functions. The MDS further indicated Resident 40 required partial to moderate assistance from staff to eat and drink, and that Resident 40 had experienced a weight loss of 5 percent (%) or more in the last month, or 10% or more in the last six months.
During a review of Resident 40's active physician orders, dated 3/12/2024, the orders indicated Resident 40 was on an altered texture diet (a diet where the texture of the food and liquids has been changed to allow it to be safely swallowed). The orders also indicated Resident 40 was receiving Lasix (Furosemide, a medication that causes you to urinate more frequently).
During a review of Resident 40's care plans, dated 11/2/2020 and revised on 3/12/2024, the care plan indicated Resident 40 had altered nutritional needs related to decreased ability to eat independently. The care plan also indicated Resident 40 had experienced a 12 pound (lb., a unit for measuring weight) weight loss in the last three months. Goals of care included Resident 40 not experiencing any signs or symptoms of choking or dehydration, and Resident 40 consuming greater than 75% of all meals. Interventions did not indicate that Resident 40 required assistance with eating and drinking. There were no care plans to indicate Resident 40's required level of assistance with eating or drinking.
During an observation on 3/18/2024 at 3:27 p.m., at Resident 40's bedside, observed Resident 40's bedside table placed at the foot end of Resident 40's bed, with Resident 40's water pitcher on top of the bedside table.
During an interview on 3/20/2024 at 2:22 p.m., with Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) 2, CNA 2 stated she was instructed by licensed nursing staff to verbally encourage Resident 40 to eat and drink, and stated she was not informed that he required staff assistance to eat or drink. CNA 2 stated that if she saw Resident 40 struggling to eat or drink, she would assist him, but she did not stay at the bedside for the duration of the meal.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 3/20/2024 at 2:33 p.m., with Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 1, LVN 1 stated Resident 40 required setup assistance for eating and drinking. LVN 1 stated setup assistance meant the staff would place Resident 40's meal tray in front of him and open any food and/or beverage containers but would not stay at the bedside to assist with the meal. LVN 1 stated she was not sure of how she determined Resident 40's required level of assistance. LVN 1 then reviewed Resident 40's care plans and stated that based on the care plan, Resident 40 had a decreased ability to eat independently and stated the care plan did not indicate what level of assistance Resident 40 required.
During an interview on 3/21/2024 at 12:49 p.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), the DON stated that Resident 40's care plan should include information related to the level of assistance required for eating and drinking. The DON stated that Resident 40 required staff to stay with the resident to assist with meals, and stated this was not indicated in the care plan. The DON stated it was important to have this information in the care plan to ensure staff were aware of the resident's needs and stated that staff being unaware of Resident 40's required level of assistance with ADLs put the resident at risk for malnutrition and dehydration.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Activities of Daily Living (ADLs), Supporting, dated 4/2023, the P&P indicated residents who are unable to carry out activities of daily living independently will receive the services necessary to maintain good nutrition . The P&P further indicated a resident's ability to perform ADLs will be measured using clinical tools, including the MDS and appropriate care and services will be provided to residents who are unable to carry out ADLs independently .including appropriate support and assistance with dining (meals and snacks) .
During a review of the facility P&P titled, Baseline Care Plan, dated 10/2017, the P&P indicated the baseline care plan developed for each resident should include instructions needed to provide effective and resident centered care.
CONCERN
(D)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0692
(Tag F0692)
Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to maintain the nutritional status of one out of four re...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to maintain the nutritional status of one out of four residents (Resident 29) by not ensuring the registered dietitian (RD, health professional who has special training in diet and nutrition) recommendations were implemented for Resident 29.
This deficient practice had the potential to cause further avoidable weight loss and malnutrition (lack of sufficient nutrients in the body) for Resident 29.
Findings:
During a review of Resident 29's admission Record, the record indicated Resident 29 was admitted to the facility on [DATE], and most recently re-admitted on [DATE]. Resident 29's admitting diagnoses included diabetes mellitus (elevated blood sugar levels), severe protein-calorie malnutrition, and adult failure to thrive (a syndrome of weight loss, decreased appetite and poor nutrition, and inactivity, often accompanied by dehydration, depressive symptoms, impaired immune function, and low cholesterol).
During a review of Resident 29's History and Physical (H&P), dated 10/23/2023, the H&P indicated Resident 29 did not have the capacity to understand and make decisions.
During a review of Resident 29's Minimum Data Set (MDS, a standardized assessment and care screening/planning tool), dated 11/07/2023, the MDS indicated Resident 29 was severely cognitively impaired (ability to think and reason). The MDS indicated Resident 29 required set-up assistance for eating.
During a review of Resident 29's Weights and Vitals Summary, dated 10/2023 through 3/2024, the summary indicated Resident 29 weighed 104 pounds (lbs) on 10/25/2023 and 89 lbs on 3/2/2024 for a total of 14.42 percent (%) weight loss over a four-month period.
During a review of Resident 29's Interdisciplinary Team (IDT, group of different disciplines working together towards a common goal of a resident) Weight Review, dated 2/13/2024, the review indicated Resident 29 had a 9% weight loss over the past 3 months. The review indicated the RD's recommendation indicated for the physician to consider ordering Resident 29 an appetite stimulant drug.
During a concurrent observation and interview on 3/18/2024, at 12:28 p.m., Resident 29 was observed awake, cachectic (loss of body weight and muscle mass) and had only eaten 25% of her meal. Resident 29 stated she was not hungry.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 3/21/2024, at 10:05 a.m., with RD 1, Resident 29's Physician's Orders dated 2/14/2024 to 3/21/2024 was reviewed. RD 1 stated the IDT had been tracking Resident 29 regularly, and RD 1 recommended an appetite stimulant in the past with current plans to discuss an enteral nutrition (an invasive surgical procedure to bypass nutrition orally and feed via a tube) but that the facility needed to speak to Resident 29's family member. RD 1 stated there had been no appetite stimulants ever ordered. RD 1 stated she followed-up with the Director of Nursing (DON) on 2/22/2024 regarding the recommended appetite stimulant for Resident 29 but did not document it. RD 1 stated the nursing department was responsible for calling the physician with recommendations for orders, but due to the lack of follow-up Resident 29 continued to lose weight and had not received adequate nutrition.
During an interview on 3/21/2024, at 10:40 a.m., with the DON, the DON stated RD 1 would email and verbalize her recommendations of residents, but that RD 1 had not followed-up with him (DON) on 2/22/2024 regarding Resident 29's appetite stimulant recommendation. The DON stated it was the whole IDT's responsibility to ensure that Resident 29 had her nutritional needs met, and the resident could be dehydrated and malnourished because of lack of recommendation follow-through.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Weight Variance Committee, dated 10/2011, the P&P indicated the purpose of the policy is for the facility to review and monitor residents with weight variances, at an interdisciplinary team meeting on a regular scheduled basis, and the recommendations from the committee will be carried out by the designated responsible discipline .[such as] medical intervention by the attending physician for conditions contributing to the reasons for weight variance.
CONCERN
(D)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0726
(Tag F0726)
Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure staff accurately and thoroughly completed Resident 7's Intak...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure staff accurately and thoroughly completed Resident 7's Intake and Output Weekly Assessments.
This deficient practice placed Resident 7 at risk for avoidable fluid balance problems, such as dehydration or hypervolemia (a condition in which the liquid portion of the blood [plasma] is too high).
Findings:
During a review of Resident 7's admission Record, the record indicated the facility admitted Resident 7 on 4/12/2022, and most recently re-admitted Resident 7 on 2/26/2024. Resident 7's admitting diagnoses included neuromuscular dysfunction of bladder (lack of bladder control due to brain, spinal cord, or nerve problems), hydronephrosis (excess fluid in a kidney due to a backup of urine), generalized swelling, congestive heart failure (CHF, a chronic condition where the heart does not pump blood as well as it should), hypo-osmolality (where the levels of electrolytes, proteins, and nutrients in the blood are lower than normal) and hyponatremia (low sodium levels in the blood).
During a review of Resident 7's Minimum Data Set (MDS, a standardized assessment and care screening/planning tool), dated 3/1/2024, indicated Resident 7 had an indwelling catheter (a tube placed into the bladder to drain urine) and was taking diuretics (medicines that help reduce fluid buildup in the body).
During a review of Resident 7's active physician orders, dated 2/27/2024, the orders indicated Resident 7 was receiving 20 milligrams (mg, a unit of dose measurement) of Lasix (furosemide, medication used to produce excess urine) for CHF.
During a review of Resident 7's care plans, dated 11/14/2022 and revised on 2/27/2024, the care plan indicated Resident 7 had CHF and had potential for excessive fluid retention and swelling of her extremities. The care plan indicated that interventions to prevent excessive fluid retention and swelling of her extremities included administration of Lasix as ordered.
During a review of Resident 7's discontinued physician orders, dated 1/31/2024 and 2/27/2024, the orders indicated staff were supposed to monitor Resident 7's output (including amount of urine voided), every shift for her diagnosis of CHF.
During a review of Resident 7's medical record titled, Intake and Output Flowsheet, dated 2/1/2024 to 2/29/2024, the record indicated Resident 7's average 24-hour urine output from 2/8/2024 to 2/15/2024 was 1,242 milliliters (mL, a unit for measuring amounts of liquid).
During a review of Resident 7's medical record titled, Intake and Output Weekly Summary, dated 2/15/2024, the record indicated Resident 7's 24-hour average urine output from 2/8/2024 to 2/15/2024 was 1,100 mL. The record was documented by the Quality Assurance Nurse (QAN).
During a review of Resident 7's medical record titled, Intake and Output Flowsheet, dated 2/1/2024 to 2/29/2024, the record indicated Resident 7 was hospitalized from [DATE] to 2/22/2024. Resident 7's average 24-hour urine output from 2/15/2024 to time of discharge on [DATE] was 950 mL.
During a review of Resident 7's medical record titled, Intake and Output Weekly Summary, dated 2/22/2024, the record indicated Resident 7's 24-hour average urine output from 2/15/2024 to 2/22/2024 was 1,100 mL. The record did not indicate Resident 7 was hospitalized or that urine output measurements were unavailable from 2/16/2024 to 2/22/2024. The record was documented by the QAN.
During a review of Resident 7's medical record titled, Intake and Output Flowsheet, dated 2/1/2024 to 2/29/2024, the record indicated Resident 7 was hospitalized from [DATE] to 2/26/2024. Resident 7's average 24-hour urine output from readmission on [DATE] to 2/29/2024 was 1,400 mL.
During a review of Resident 7's medical record titled, Intake and Output Weekly Summary, dated 2/29/2024, the record indicated Resident 7's 24-hour average urine output from 2/22/2024 to 2/29/2024 was 1,500 mL. The record did not indicate Resident 7 was hospitalized or that urine output measurements were unavailable from 2/22/2024 to 2/26/2024. The record was documented by the QAN.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 3/21/2024 at 11:55 a.m., with the QAN, the QAN stated she was a Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN), and the primary staff person responsible for completing Resident 7's Intake and Output Weekly Summary assessments. The QAN stated this had been assigned to her by the Director of Nursing (DON). The QAN reviewed Resident 7's Intake and Output Weekly Summary assessments dated 2/15/2024, 2/22/2024, and 2/29/2024. The QAN stated she was not confident in her ability to complete the assessment, including calculation of the 24-hour average urine output. The QAN stated she had not reported this to the DON. The QAN stated the assessment was used for determining Resident 7's fluid balance, stating Resident 7 had CHF and was on Lasix, therefore documentation of Resident 7's fluid balance should be accurate.
During an interview on 3/21/2024 at 12:31 p.m., with the DON, the DON stated the purpose of the Intake and Output Weekly Summary was to ensure that the resident's intake and output was sufficient and stated the assessment data should be accurate. The DON stated he was not aware the QAN did not know how to calculate the average 24-hour urine output. The DON stated that inaccurate documentation put the resident at risk for dehydration or overhydration because the assessment was used to guide the plan of care.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Intake and Output Measurement, dated 10/2015, the P&P indicated it was the responsibility of the licensed nursing staff to maintain an accurate record of the resident's fluid balance.
During a review of the P&P titled, Documentation Principles, dated 1/2014, the P&P indicated that all entries in the resident's medical record were supposed to be accurate and objective - record facts and what it is, do not 'assume'.
CONCERN
(D)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Pharmacy Services
(Tag F0755)
Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident
Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to administer artificial tears drops (for dry eyes) on time for one out of three residents (Resident 79) according to their poli...
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Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to administer artificial tears drops (for dry eyes) on time for one out of three residents (Resident 79) according to their policies and procedures.
This deficient practice had the potential to result in Resident 79's discomfort and worsening of dry eyes.
Findings:
During a review of Resident 79's admission Record, the record indicated the facility admitted Resident 79 on 11/1/2023 with admitting diagnoses that included diabetes mellitus (a group of diseases that result in too much sugar in the blood) and glaucoma (a group of eye conditions that can cause blindness from too much pressure on the nerve connecting the eye to the brain).
During a review of Resident 79's History and Physical (H&P), dated 11/3/2023, the H&P indicated Resident 79 had the capacity to understand and make medical decisions.
During a review of Resident 79's Minimum Data Set (MDS, a comprehensive assessment and care screening tool), dated 2/6/2024, the MDS indicated Resident 79 was cognitively intact (ability to think and reason).
During a review of Resident 79's Visual Impairment care plan, revised 11/8/2023, the care plan indicated interventions included for Resident 79 to receive eye drops as ordered.
During a review of Resident 79's current physician orders, dated 12/12/2023, the order indicated Artificial Tears Ophthalmic (eye) solution, one (1) drop was to be administered in both eyes two times a day for dry eyes.
During a review of Resident 79's Medication Administration Record (MAR), dated 12/2023 through 2/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 79 had Artificial Tears eye drops scheduled for 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., but Resident 79 received the 5:00 p.m. dose at 10:46 p.m. by Registered Nurse (RN) 2.
During a concurrent observation and interview, on 3/18/2024, at 9:56 a.m., with Resident 79, Resident 79 was ambulatory (walking), dressed, and reported concern of not receiving his eye drops timely by the nurse last evening (3/17/2024).
During a concurrent interview and record review on 3/21/2024, at 9:25 a.m., the with Infection Preventionist (IP), Resident 79's MAR, dated 3/17/2024, was reviewed. The IP stated medications were to be administered from one hour before or after the scheduled time, however if medications were given late the physician should be notified and it should be documented in the resident's chart. The IP stated that Resident 79 was very familiar with his medications and was involved in his own care. The IP stated according to the MAR Resident 79 received his artificial tear drops scheduled for 5:00 p.m. at 10:46 p.m. by RN 2.
During an interview on 3/21/2024, at 2:15 p.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), the DON stated if a medication was administered late the nurse should document the reason why and notify the physician for follow-up instructions.
During a review of the facility's policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Medication Administration - General Guidelines, dated 4/2028, the P&P indicated medications are administered within 60 minutes of scheduled time (1 hour before and 1 hour after).
CONCERN
(D)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0761
(Tag F0761)
Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to ensure medications were not expired in the dialysis (...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to ensure medications were not expired in the dialysis (treatment that helps your body remove extra fluid and waste products from the blood) emergency kit (E-kit, a small supply of medications to quickly treat symptoms in an emergency).
This deficient practice had the potential to cause contamination and loss of efficacy of the medications in the dialysis E-kit.
Findings:
During a review of Resident 58's admission Record, dated 3/22/2024, the admission record indicated Resident 58 was initially admitted to the facility on [DATE] and readmitted on [DATE] with the following diagnoses which included end stage renal disease (ESRD, the last stage of chronic kidney disease [gradual loss of kidney function]), type 2 diabetes mellitus (condition that results in too much sugar circulating in the blood), hypertension (high blood pressure), hyperlipidemia (an abnormally high concentration of fat particles in the blood), and dependence on renal dialysis.
During a review of Resident 58's's History and Physical (H&P), dated 10/1/2023, the H&P indicated Resident 58 had the capacity to understand and make decisions.
During a review of Resident 58's Minimum Data Set (MDS - a standardized resident assessment care screening tool), dated 2/7/2024, the MDS indicated Resident 58 was cognitively intact (ability to understand and make decisions) for daily decision making. The MDS indicated Resident 58 required minimal assistance with personal hygiene and eating, and maximal assistance with toileting and bathing.
During a review of Resident 58's Order Summary Report, dated 3/22/2024, the order summary report indicated an order for Resident 58 to receive dialysis on Mondays, Wednesdays, and Fridays starting on 12/23/2023.
During a review of Resident 58's Order Summary Report, dated 3/22/2024, the order summary report indicated an order to place a dialysis E-kit at Resident 58's bedside at all times, every shift starting on 9/29/2024.
During a concurrent observation and interview on 3/21/2024 at 9:51 a.m. with Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 4, at Resident 58's bedside, observed Resident 58's dialysis E-kit in the top drawer of the Resident 58's bedside table. LVN 4 removed the contents from the dialysis E-kit. Observed several pairs of gloves, gauze, and a tourniquet inside of the E-kit. Also observed gel packages and an expired bottle of normal saline (a mixture of salt and water) with an expiration date of 12/5/2023. LVN 4 stated that the E-kits should not have expired medications and he was not sure how the expired normal saline got into the bag.
During an interview on 3/21/2024 at 10:07 a.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), the DON stated that a resident's dialysis E-kit should be checked upon admission and periodically checked by the central supply department. The DON stated that the central supply department would replace items in the dialysis E-kit as needed. The DON stated that there should not be expired normal saline in the dialysis E-kit because it could delay treatment. The DON also stated that expired products could lose their effectiveness which was why it was very important to ensure medications were changed. The DON stated the facility needed a process to ensure medications in the dialysis E-kit were fresh and up to date.
During a review of the facility's policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Medication Storage in the Facility, dated April 2008, the P&P indicated Medications and biologicals are stored safely, securely, and properly, following manufacturer's recommendations or those of the supplier. The P&P indicated that outdated, contaminated, or deteriorated medications and those in containers that are cracked, soiled, or without secure closures are immediately removed from stock, disposed of according to procedures for medication disposal and recorded from the pharmacy if a current order exists.
CONCERN
(D)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Infection Control
(Tag F0880)
Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to prevent cross-contamination when placing soiled linen...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to prevent cross-contamination when placing soiled linens on top of a shared resident surface.
This deficient practice had the potential to spread infectious microorganisms to staff and residents.
Findings:
During a concurrent observation and interview on 3/18/2024, at 9:42 a.m., with Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) 1, in the shared resident bathroom for room [ROOM NUMBER] and room [ROOM NUMBER], a soiled towel with brown and yellowish residue was observed on top of the toilet. CNA 1 entered the bathroom and picked up the soiled towel. CNA 1 stated she placed the dirty towel there temporarily while she went to get a bag to put it in. CNA 1 stated dirty linens should have gone directly into a plastic bag and not on community surfaces to prevent infection spreading to other residents.
During an interview on 3/21/2024, at 8:52 a.m., with the Infection Preventionist Nurse (IPN), the IPN stated linen bags were easily accessible outside of residents' rooms in the clean linen cart, and soiled linens should have been placed in a bag right away after use, then discarded into the soiled linen hamper outside residents' rooms. The IPN stated placing a soiled towel on top of the shared resident bathroom could cause an infection for residents by cross-contamination.
During an interview on 3/21/2024, at 11:13 a.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), the DON stated soiled linens should not be placed on top of shared surfaces but should be bagged and then placed in the linen barrel to prevent transmission of organisms to staff or residents.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Infection Control Policy - Laundry Services, dated 5/2018, the P&P indicated:
a. All soiled linen should be bagged or put into carts at the location where they have been used; it should not be sorted or pre-rinsed in resident care areas.
b. Linen that is saturated with blood or body fluids should be deposited and transported in impervious bags.
c. Soiled linen should be removed from resident care areas at least daily or more frequently if needed, depending on the amount of soiled linen is generated.
CONCERN
(D)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0883
(Tag F0883)
Could have caused harm · This affected 1 resident
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to ensure that influenza (flu - a very contagious viral ...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to ensure that influenza (flu - a very contagious viral infection that affects the nose, throat, and lungs) and pneumococcal (any infection caused by bacteria called Streptococcus pneumoniae) vaccinations (a method used to protect against harmful germs), were offered as required to one of five sampled residents (Resident 83).
This deficient practice placed Resident 83 at a higher risk of acquiring the flu and pneumonia (an infection of the lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi), which could increase the resident's risk of developing serious complications. This deficient practice also had the potential to increase the risk of flu and pneumonia transmission to other residents in the facility.
Findings:
During a review of Resident 83's admission Record, dated March 21, 2024, the admission record indicated Resident 69 was admitted to the facility on [DATE] with the following diagnoses which included fracture (break) of the neck and left femur (long bone of the thigh), sepsis (the body's overwhelming and life-threatening response to an infection [the invasion and growth of germs in the body] which could lead to tissue damage, organ failure, and death), type 2 diabetes mellitus (condition that results in too much sugar circulating in the blood), anemia (a condition marked by a deficiency of red blood cells), and hypertension (high blood pressure).
During a review of Resident 83's Minimum Data Set (MDS - a standardized resident assessment care screening tool), dated 12/31/2023, the MDS indicated Resident 83 required some assistance with eating and oral hygiene, and was totally dependent for toileting hygiene and bathing.
During a review of Resident 83's History and Physical (H&P), dated 12/29/2023, the H&P indicated Resident 83 had the capacity to understand and make decisions.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 3/20/2024 at 10:13 a.m., with the Infection Preventionist Nurse (IPN), Resident 83's immunization history was reviewed. The IPN was asked to provide the admission date of Resident 83 as well his most recent influenza and pneumococcal vaccines from the medical records. The IPN stated that according to Resident 83's medical records, the resident was admitted on [DATE]. The IPN stated Resident 83's immunization record indicated that the influenza and pneumococcal vaccines were not administered to the resident upon his admission to the facility. The IPN stated that she could not find any documentation that indicated Resident 83 had a contraindication or refused the influenza and pneumococcal vaccines. The IPN stated that an informed consent must be signed by the resident or the resident's representative if the vaccine was declined. The IPN stated that she was not able to locate an informed consent indicating Resident 83 refused the influenza or pneumococcal vaccine. The IPN then searched for Resident 83's immunization history in the California Immunization Registry (CAIR2 - a web-based, confidential, database that stores the immunization records for California residents). The IPN stated that according to the CAIR2 database, Resident 83 received his last influenza vaccine on 9/12/2019 and there was no history of a pneumococcal vaccine in the CAIR2 database. The IPN stated that according to the facility's policy, vaccines should be offered to residents upon admission. The IPN stated that the reason Resident 83's influenza and pneumococcal vaccines were missed was because there was another resident in the facility with a very similar name. The IPN acknowledged that she should have taken more precaution to ensure the resident received his vaccines since she knew there were residents with similar names. The IPN also stated that because Resident 83 did not receive the influenza or pneumococcal vaccines, the resident was at an increased risk of developing influenza or acquiring pneumonia. The IPN stated that she would offer Resident 83 the influenza vaccine since it was still within the time frame to receive it. The IPN stated that Resident 83 was immunocompromised, and catching the flu or getting pneumonia could cause Resident 83 to become very ill and his health to decline.
During a review of the facility's policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Influenza Vaccine, dated October 2019, the P&P indicated the following:
1. All residents and employees who have no medical contraindications to the vaccine will be offered the influenza vaccine annually to encourage and promote the benefits associated with vaccinations against influenza.
2. Between October 1st and March 31st each year, the influenza vaccine shall be offered to resident and employees, unless the vaccine is medically contraindicated, or the resident or employee has already been immunized.
3. Employees hired or resident admitted between October 1st and March 31st shall be offered the vaccine within five (5) working days of the employee's job assignment or the resident's admission to the facility.
4. The infection preventionist will maintain surveillance data on influenza vaccine coverage and reported rates of influenza among resident and staff.
During a review of the facility's P&P titled, Pneumococcal Vaccine, dated October 2019, the P&P indicated the following:
1. All residents will be offered pneumococcal vaccines in aid in preventing pneumonia/pneumococcal infections.
2. Prior to or upon admission, residents will be assessed for eligibility to receive the pneumococcal vaccine series, and when indicated, will be offered the vaccine series within thirty (30) days of admission to the facility unless medically contraindicated or the resident has already been vaccinated.
3. Assessments of pneumococcal vaccinations will be conducted within five (5) working days of the resident's admission if not conducted prior to admission.
CONCERN
(E)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0552
(Tag F0552)
Could have caused harm · This affected multiple residents
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to:
1. Obtain informed consent, per its policy and procedure, prior to...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to:
1. Obtain informed consent, per its policy and procedure, prior to the initiation and administration of psychotropics (medications that affect the mind, emotions, and behavior) for four of 17 sampled residents (Residents 75, 40, 82, and 20).
2. Ensure that facility staff were aware of the facility policy and procedure for obtaining informed consent prior to the initiation and administration of psychotherapeutic medications (psychotropics).
These deficient practices placed Residents 75, 40, 82, and 20 at risk for avoidable harm from unwanted adverse effects (a harmful and undesired effect resulting from a medication or intervention) related to psychotropic medication use. The above failures also removed the residents' rights to make decisions about the care and treatments they received in the facility.
Cross Reference: F-tag F658
Findings
1. During a review of Resident 75's admission Record, the record indicated Resident 75 was admitted to the facility on [DATE] with admitting diagnoses that included transient cerebral ischemic attack (a brief blockage of blood flow to the brain). The admission record further indicated a new diagnosis of bipolar disorder (a mental illness that causes unusual shifts in a person's mood, energy, activity levels, and concentration) that started on 3/8/2024.
During a review of Resident 75's History and Physical (H&P), dated 2/8/2024, the H&P indicated Resident 75 could make his needs known but could not make medical decisions.
During a review of Resident 75's Minimum Data Set (MDS), dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 75 had moderately impaired cognitive (problems with a person's ability to think, learn, remember, use judgement, and make decisions) skills for daily decision making.
During a review of Resident 75's current physician orders, the orders indicated Resident 75 was started on one (1) milligram (mg, a unit of dose measurement for medications) of Risperdal (risperidone, an antipsychotic medication used to treat certain mental and mood disorders) twice a day for bipolar disorder m/b [manifested by] aggressive agitative behavior AEB [as evidenced by] striking out behavior towards staff unprovoked. The orders indicated the medication was started on 3/8/2024.
During a review of Resident 75's medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 3/8/2024, the record indicated informed consent for administration of Risperdal was obtained from Resident 75 and Resident 75's Family Member (FM) 2. The record was signed by the Quality Assurance Nurse (QAN) and Nurse Practitioner (NP) 1.
During a review of Resident 75's progress note, dated 3/8/2024, documented by the QAN, the note indicated informed consent obtained from [FM 2].
During an interview on 3/28/2024 at 9:08 a.m., with FM 2, FM 2 stated she did not receive a phone call on 3/8/2024 related to the initiation of or to provide informed consent for administration of Risperdal. FM 2 stated she received a call from facility staff on 3/12/2024 and stated, They only told me he (Resident 75) was being aggressive with staff. FM 2 stated the facility staff did not tell her about Resident 75's specific behaviors or that Resident 75 had been started on Risperdal. FM 2 stated that the interview (on 3/28/2024) was the first time she was made aware that Resident 75 was receiving Risperdal.
During a review of Resident 75's care plan, dated 3/8/2024, the care plan indicated that potential adverse effects associated with administration of Risperdal included agitation, inability to sleep, anxiety, nausea, vomiting, akathisia (muscle quivering, restlessness, and inability to sit still), lightheadedness, dyspepsia (upper abdominal discomfort, described as burning sensation, bloating or gassiness), uncontrollable involuntary movements, low blood pressure when changing positions, and stiffness of the muscles.
During a review of Resident 75's Medication Administration Record (MAR), dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 75 received a total of 38 doses of Risperdal from 3/8/2024 to 3/27/2024.
2. During a review of Resident 40's admission Record, the record indicated Resident 40 was admitted to the facility on [DATE] and was most recently re-admitted on [DATE]. Resident 40's admitting diagnoses included dysarthria (difficulty speaking) and vascular dementia (brain damage caused by multiple strokes, that can cause memory loss in older adults).
During a review of Resident 40's H&P, dated 3/15/2024, the H&P indicated Resident 40 did not have the capacity to understand and make decisions.
During a review Resident 40's MDS, dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 40 had severely impaired cognitive skills for daily decision making.
During a review of Resident 40's progress note, dated 3/12/2024, the progress note indicated noted new order and carried out from [NP 1] to start [Resident 40] on Risperdal 0.5 mg 1 tablet by mouth twice a day .Informed consent obtained from [FM 1].
During a review of Resident 40's medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 3/12/2024, the record indicated informed consent for the administration of Risperdal was obtained from FM 1. The record was signed by the QAN and NP 1.
During an interview on 3/21/2024 at 2:49 p.m., with NP 1, NP 1 stated she would obtain an informed consent from the resident's family or responsible party if ordering a psychotropic medication, and stated she did not recall giving an order for Risperdal or obtaining informed consent to initiate Risperdal for Resident 40.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 3/21/2024 at 4:51 p.m., with the QAN, Resident 40's medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 3/12/2024, was reviewed. The QAN stated she did not speak Spanish, so Registered Nurse (RN) 1 obtained the informed consent from FM 1 and she signed the record to indicate that informed consent was obtained. When asked why the record indicated NP 1's name and signature, dated 3/12/2024, the QAN stated the facility practice was for NP 1 to sign copies of blank informed consent forms ahead of time, and the staff fill in the resident's information when an informed consent for medication needed to be obtained. The QAN stated that two licensed nurses could obtain informed consent via telephone for psychotropic medications. The QAN stated she could not verify when RN 1 spoke to FM 1 in Spanish that information was provided related to informed consent, or that FM 1 consented or understood. The QAN confirmed that she still signed the document.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 3/22/2024 at 8:28 a.m., with RN 1, Resident 40's medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 3/12/2024 was reviewed. RN 1 stated he assisted with translation for obtaining the informed consent for Resident 40's Risperdal order on 3/12/2024. RN 1 stated informed consent could be obtained by licensed nursing staff or the ordering NP or medical doctor. RN 1 stated he was not sure if NP 1 had obtained informed consent from FM 1. RN 1 stated he was just the translator for the QAN.
During a review of Resident 40's physician orders, dated 3/18/2024, the orders indicated Resident 40's Risperdal was increased to 1 mg by mouth twice a day.
During a review of Resident 40's medical record, there was no informed consent documented for the change in dose from Risperdal 0.5 mg ordered on 3/12/2024, and the new order of Risperdal 1 mg ordered on 3/18/2024.
During a review of Resident 40's progress note, dated 3/18/2024, the progress note indicated [Medical Doctor (MD) 1] gave verbal orders .Risperdal increased to 1 mg PO [by mouth] BID [twice a day] .Orders noted and carried out.
During an interview on 3/21/2024 at 3:52 p.m., with MD 1, MD 1 stated he did not obtain a new informed consent when Resident 40's Risperdal was increased from 0.5 mg to 1 mg on 3/18/2024. MD 1 stated that when a resident's psychotropic medication dose was increased, nursing staff notify the family or responsible party, but a new informed consent did not need to be obtained. MD 1 stated that residents with advanced dementia (progressive memory loss) on psychotropics have increased mortality risk and stated that long term use of psychotropic medications could cause additional adverse effects, including tardive dyskinesia (repetitive, involuntary movements) and somnolence (strong desire for sleep and feeling of drowsiness).
During an interview on 3/22/2024 at 8:39 a.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), the DON stated he provided training to all licensed staff related to obtaining informed consent using the facility policy and procedure. The DON stated informed consent was supposed to be obtained by the ordering provider, and stated licensed nursing staff were supposed to confirm with the resident or the resident's responsible party that the provider had obtained the informed consent. The DON stated it was not within the scope of the licensed nursing staff to obtain informed consent.
During a review of Resident 40's MAR, dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 40 received a total of 11 doses of Risperdal from 3/12/2024 to 3/18/2024, and was hospitalized on [DATE].
3. During a review of Resident 82's admission Record, the record indicated Resident 82 was admitted to the facility on [DATE] with admitting diagnoses that included anxiety disorder (intense, excessive, and persistent worry and fear about everyday situations), unspecified psychosis (a mental disorder characterized by a disconnection from reality) not due to a substance or known physiological condition, metabolic encephalopathy, aphasia (language disorder that affects a person's ability to communicate).
During a review of Resident 82's H&P, dated 1/15/2024, the H&P indicated Resident 82 did not have the capacity to understand and make decisions.
During a review of Resident 82's MDS, dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 82 had moderately impaired cognitive skills for daily decision making.
During a review of Resident 82's discontinued and completed medication orders, the orders indicated Resident 82 received 0.5 mg of Ativan (used to treat anxiety [feelings of unease, excessive worry]) every six (6) hours, as needed, from 1/15/2024 to 1/30/2024. Resident 82 then received 0.5 mg of Ativan every six (6) hours, as needed, from 2/2/2024 to 2/16/2024. The orders further indicated Resident 82 received 1 mg of Risperdal every 12 hours from 1/15/2024 to 1/30/2024.
During a review of Resident 82'a medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 1/15/2024, the record indicated informed consent for the administration of 0.5 mg of Ativan was obtained from Resident 82's FM 3.
During a review of Resident 82'a medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 2/2/2024, the record indicated informed consent for the administration of 0.5 mg of Ativan was obtained from Resident 82's FM 3.
During a review of Resident 82'a medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 1/15/2024, the record indicated informed consent for the administration of 1 mg of Risperdal was obtained from Resident 82's FM 3.
During a review of Resident 82's current physician orders, the orders indicated Resident 82 was started on 1 mg of Risperdal twice a day on 1/31/2024. The orders further indicated Resident 82 was then started on an additional dose of 0.5 mg of Risperdal twice a day on 2/2/2024. Resident 82 was receiving a total of 1.5 mg of Risperdal twice a day.
During a review of Resident 82'a medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 1/31/2024, the record indicated informed consent for the administration of 1 mg of Risperdal was obtained from Resident 82's FM 3.
During a review of Resident 82'a medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or Prolonged Use of a Device, dated 2/2/2024, the record indicated informed consent for the administration of an additional 0.5 mg of Risperdal was obtained from Resident 82's FM 3.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 3/27/2024 at 2:31 p.m., with FM 3, Resident 82's records titled Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 1/15/2024, 1/31/2024, and 2/2/2024 was reviewed. FM 3 stated his name and phone number were indicated on the form, but stated he did not receive a call form facility staff or provide informed consent for administration of Ativan and/or Risperdal. FM 3 stated facility staff told him Resident 82 was receiving Risperdal and Ativan, but did not discuss side effects, how long Resident 82 would be on the medications, or that the medication was not mandatory. FM 3 stated he asked for a copy of Resident 82's medications and had to research the medications by himself.
During a review of Resident 82's care plan, dated 1/28/2024 and revised on 2/3/2024, the care plan indicated that potential adverse effects associated with administration of Risperdal included agitation, inability to sleep, anxiety, nausea, vomiting, akathisia, lightheadedness, dyspepsia, uncontrollable involuntary movements, low blood pressure when changing positions, and stiffness of the muscles.
During a review of Resident 82's care plan, dated 1/28/2024, the care plan indicated that potential adverse effects associated with administration of Ativan included dizziness, unsteadiness, weakness, fatigue, drowsiness, confusion, depression, ataxia (loss of muscle control), sleep apnea (when you stop breathing while asleep), uncontrollable involuntary movements, dysarthria, low blood pressure, and liver complications.
During a review of Resident 82's MAR, dated 1/1/2024 to 1/31/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 82 received a total of 29 doses of Risperdal and 9 doses of Ativan from 1/1/2024 to 1/31/2024.
During a review of Resident 82's MAR, dated 2/1/2024 to 2/29/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 82 received a total of 58 doses of Risperdal and 14 doses of Ativan from 2/1/2024 to 2/29/2024.
During a review of Resident 82's MAR, dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 82 received a total of 53 doses of Risperdal from 3/1/2024 to 3/27/2024.
4. During a review of Resident 20's admission Record, the record indicated Resident 20 was originally admitted to the facility on [DATE] and re-admitted to the facility on [DATE], with admitting diagnoses that included aphasia, bi-polar disorder, schizophrenia (a disorder that affects a person's ability to think, feel, and behave clearly), and multiple sclerosis (a disease in which the immune system eats away at the protective covering of nerves causing progressive inability to move over time).
During a review of Resident 20's MDS, dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 20 had severely impaired cognitive skills for decision making.
During a review of Resident 20's medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 3/11/2024, the record indicated informed consent was signed by Resident 20's family member (FM 3) and RN 2 for the administration of olanzapine (antipsychotic medication) oral tablet 5 milligrams at bedtime.
During a review of Resident 20's current physician orders, dated 3/12/2024, the orders indicated olanzapine oral tablet 5 mg, was to be given by mouth at bedtime for bipolar disorder manifested by being in a calm state to sudden outbursts.
During a review of Resident 20's H&P, dated 3/13/2024, the H&P indicated Resident 20 did not have the capacity to understand and make decisions.
During a review of Resident 20's MAR, dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 20 received a total of 16 doses of olanzapine from 3/12/2024 to 3/27/2024.
During an observation on 3/27/2024, at 10:07 a.m., Resident 20 was observed awake, alert, seated in a Geri-chair (a reclining chair made for those who are bed bound or unable to hold up their own weight in a sitting position), unable to verbalize and unable to move.
During an interview on 3/27/2024, at 11:24 a.m., with Resident 20's Representative Payee (RP) 1, RP 1 stated he had never received a phone call from RN 2, NP 1, or any other staff from the facility regarding Resident 20's psychiatric medication and had never heard of the medication olanzapine or Zyprexa. RP 1 further stated he was not Resident 20's responsible party, but his court ordered payee who only paid the resident's bills. RP 1 stated Resident 20 did not have a sister, and that the resident only had brothers.
During an attempted interview on 3/27/2024, at 11:40 a.m., RN 2's telephone rang five times. A voicemail was left for RN 2 with request for a call back regarding the informed consent for Resident 20.
During an attempted interview on 3/27/2024, at 3:43 p.m., RN 2's telephone rang twice before it went to voicemail.
5. During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 10:32 a.m., with MD 1, MD 1 stated that nursing staff were the primary staff responsible for obtaining informed consent for psychotropic medications from the resident and/or responsible party. MD 1 stated that if the nurses were unable to reach the responsible party by telephone to obtain the informed consent, then the staff would notify him, and he would attempt to call the responsible party himself. MD 1 stated it was rare that he obtained informed consent from the resident or their responsible party.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Informed Consent, dated 9/2018, the P&P indicated:
a. The attending physician, PA [Physician Assistant], or NP must obtain the informed consent of the resident or their responsible party for purposes of prescribing, ordering or increasing an order for a medication.
b. Seek the consent of the resident's responsible party, if the resident is not competent to make treatment decisions as designated in the medical record. The physician, PA, or NP shall make reasonable attempts .to notify the interested family member .of the prescription order of increase of an order for psychotherapeutic [psychotropic] medication.
c. The facility shall verify the informed consent has been obtained prior to the administration of psychotherapeutic medication.
d. It is the responsibility of the physician, PA or NP who orders the psychotherapeutic medication to obtain the resident or the resident's responsible party's informed consent prior to initiation of therapy .the physician, PA or NP cannot delegate the responsibility to the nurse to obtain the consent.
e. The information material to a decision concerning the administration of a psychotherapeutic drug shall include:
a. The reason for the treatment and the nature and seriousness of the resident's illness
b. The probable degree and duration .of improvement or remission, expected with or without such treatment.
c. The nature, degree, duration and probability of the side effects and significant risks
d. The reasonable alternative treatments and risks, and why this particular treatment is recommended.
e. That the resident has the right to accept or refuse the proposed treatment
CONCERN
(E)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0658
(Tag F0658)
Could have caused harm · This affected multiple residents
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and record review, facility staff failed to ensure the care provided met professional standards for nine of 1...
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**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and record review, facility staff failed to ensure the care provided met professional standards for nine of 17 sampled residents (Residents 75, 82, 200, 94, 40, 20, 3, 13, and 60) when the following occurred:
1. Informed consents were not obtained per the facility's policy and procedure prior to the initiation of psychotropic medications for Residents 75, 40, 82, and 20.
2. Psychiatric care provided to Residents 75, 82, 200, 94, 40, 20, 3, 13, and 60 under Medical Doctor (MD) 2 (facility psychiatrist) and Nurse Practitioner (NP) 1 was not regularly overseen or monitored by the facility Medical Director (MD 1) for potential concerns or compliance with facility policies and procedures.
3. Performance of MD 1, serving as the facility's Medical Director, was not overseen by the facility Administrator (ADM).
These deficient practices removed Resident 75, 40, 82, and 20's rights to make decisions related to their care and placed the residents at risk for avoidable harm from unwanted adverse effects (a harmful and undesired effect resulting from a medication or intervention) related to psychotherapeutic medication use. These deficient practices also placed all facility residents at risk for undetected care concerns due to lack of physician or facility ADM oversight.
Cross Reference: F-tags F552, F758, F835, and F841
Findings:
1a. During a review of Resident 75's admission Record, the record indicated Resident 75 was admitted to the facility on [DATE] with admitting diagnoses that included transient cerebral ischemic attack (a brief blockage of blood flow to the brain). The admission record further indicated a new diagnosis of bipolar disorder (a mental illness that causes unusual shifts in a person's mood, energy, activity levels, and concentration) that started on 3/8/2024.
During a review of Resident 75's History and Physical (H&P), dated 2/8/2024, the H&P indicated Resident 75 could make his needs known but could not make medical decisions.
During a review of Resident 75's Minimum Data Set (MDS), dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 75 had moderately impaired cognitive (problems with a person's ability to think, learn, remember, use judgement, and make decisions) skills for daily decision making.
During a review of Resident 75's current physician orders, the orders indicated Resident 75 was started on one (1) milligram (mg, a unit of dose measurement for medications) of Risperdal (risperidone, an antipsychotic medication used to treat certain mental and mood disorders) twice a day for bipolar disorder m/b [manifested by] aggressive agitative behavior AEB [as evidenced by] striking out behavior towards staff unprovoked. The medication was started on 3/8/2024.
During a review of Resident 75's medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 3/8/2024, the record indicated informed consent for administration of the Risperdal was obtained from Resident 75 and Resident 75's Family Member (FM) 2. The record was signed by the Quality Assurance Nurse (QAN) and Nurse Practitioner (NP) 1.
During a review of Resident 75's progress note, dated 3/8/2024, documented by the QAN, the note indicated informed consent obtained from [FM 2].
During an interview on 3/28/2024 at 9:08 a.m., with FM 2, FM 2 stated she did not receive a phone call on 3/8/2024 related to the initiation of or to provide informed consent for administration of Risperdal. FM 2 stated she received a call from facility staff on 3/12/2024 and stated, They only told me he was being aggressive with staff. FM 2 stated the facility staff did not tell her about Resident 75's specific behaviors or that Resident 75 had been started on Risperdal. FM 2 stated that the interview was the first time she was made aware that Resident 75 was taking Risperdal.
During a review of Resident 75's care plan, dated 3/8/2024, the care plan indicated that potential adverse effects associated with administration of Risperdal included: agitation, inability to sleep, anxiety, nausea, vomiting, akathisia (muscle quivering, restlessness, and inability to sit still), lightheadedness, dyspepsia (upper abdominal discomfort, described as burning sensation, bloating or gassiness), uncontrollable involuntary movements, low blood pressure when changing positions, and stiffness of the muscles.
During a review of Resident 75's Medication Administration Record (MAR), dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 75 received a total of 38 doses of Risperdal from 3/8/2024 to 3/27/2024.
1b. During a review of Resident 40's admission Record, the record indicated Resident 40 was admitted to the facility on [DATE] and was most recently re-admitted on [DATE]. Resident 40's admitting diagnoses included dysarthria (difficulty speaking) and vascular dementia (brain damage caused by multiple strokes, that can cause memory loss in older adults).
During a review of Resident 40's H&P, dated 3/15/2024, the H&P indicated Resident 40 did not have the capacity to understand and make decisions.
During a review Resident 40's MDS, dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 40 had severely impaired cognition.
During a review of Resident 40's progress note, dated 3/12/2024, the progress noted indicated noted new order and carried out from [Nurse Practitioner 1] to start [Resident 40] on Risperdal 0.5 mg 1 tablet by mouth twice a day .Informed consent obtained from [FM 1].
During a review of Resident 40's medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 3/12/2024, the record indicated informed consent for administration of the Risperdal was obtained from FM 1. The record was signed by the QAN and NP 1.
During an interview on 3/21/2024 at 2:49 p.m., with NP 1, NP 1 stated she would obtain an informed consent from the resident's family or responsible party if ordering a psychotropic medication, and stated she did not recall giving an order for Risperdal or obtaining informed consent to initiate Risperdal for Resident 40.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 3/21/2024 at 4:51 p.m., with the QAN, the QAN reviewed Resident 40's medical record titled Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 3/12/2024. The QAN stated she did not speak Spanish, so Registered Nurse (RN) 1 obtained the informed consent from FM 1 and she signed the record to indicate that informed consent was obtained. When asked why the record indicated the NP 1's name and signature, dated 3/12/24, the QAN stated the facility practice was for NP 1 to sign copies of blank informed consent forms ahead of time, and the staff fill in the resident's information when an informed consent for medication needs to be obtained. The QAN stated that two licensed nurses can obtain informed consent via phone for psychotropic medications. The QAN stated she could not verify that when RN 1 spoke to FM 1 in Spanish that information was provided related to informed consent, or that FM 1 consented or understood. The QAN confirmed that she still signed the document.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 3/22/2024 at 8:28 a.m., with RN 1, RN 1 stated he assisted with translation for obtaining the informed consent for Resident 40's Risperdal order on 3/12/2024. RN 1 stated informed consent could be obtained by licensed nursing staff or the ordering nurse practitioner or medical doctor. RN 1 reviewed Resident 40's medical record titled Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 3/12/2024, and stated he was not sure if NP 1 had obtained informed consent from FM 1. RN 1 stated he was just the translator for the QAN.
During a review of Resident 40's physician orders, dated 3/18/2024, the orders indicated Resident 40's Risperdal was increased to 1 mg by mouth twice a day.
During a review of Resident 40's medical record, there was no informed consent documented for the change in dose from Risperdal 0.5 mg ordered on 3/12/2024 and the new order of Risperdal 1 mg ordered on 3/18/2024.
During a review of Resident 40's progress note, dated 3/18/2024, the progress note indicated [Medical Doctor (MD) 1] gave verbal orders .Risperdal increased to 1 mg PO [by mouth] BID [twice a day] .Orders noted and carried out.
During an interview on 3/21/2024 at 3:52 p.m., with MD 1, MD 1 stated he did not obtain a new informed consent when Resident 40's Risperdal was increased from 0.5 mg to 1 mg on 3/18/2024. MD 1 stated that when a resident's psychotropic medication dose is increased, nursing staff notify the family or responsible party, but a new informed consent does not need to be obtained. MD 1 stated that residents with advanced dementia on psychotropics have increased mortality risk and stated that long term use of psychotropic medications can cause additional adverse effects, including tardive dyskinesia (repetitive, involuntary movements) and somnolence (strong desire for sleep and feeling of drowsiness).
During an interview on 3/22/2024 at 8:39 a.m., with the DON, the DON stated he provided training to all licensed staff related to obtaining informed consent using the facility policy and procedure. The DON stated informed consent was supposed to be obtained by the ordering provider, and stated licensed nursing staff were supposed to confirm with the resident or the resident's responsible party that the provider had obtained the informed consent. The DON stated it was not within the scope of the licensed nursing staff to obtain informed consent.
During a review of Resident 40's Medication Administration Record (MAR), dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 40 received a total of 11 doses of Risperdal from 3/12/2024 to 3/18/2024, and was hospitalized on [DATE].
1c. During a review of Resident 82's admission Record, the record indicated Resident 82 was admitted to the facility on [DATE] with admitting diagnoses that included anxiety disorder (intense, excessive, and persistent worry and fear about everyday situations), unspecified psychosis (a mental disorder characterized by a disconnection from reality) not due to a substance or known physiological condition, metabolic encephalopathy, aphasia (language disorder that affects a person's ability to communicate).
During a review of Resident 82's H&P, dated 1/15/2024, the H&P indicated Resident 82 did not have the capacity to understand make decisions.
During a review of Resident 82's MDS, dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 82 had moderately impaired cognition.
During a review of Resident 82's discontinued and completed medication orders, the orders indicated Resident 82 received 0.5 mg of Ativan (medication used to treat anxiety [feelings of unease and excessive worry]) every six (6) hours, as needed, from 1/15/2024 to 1/30/2024. Resident 82 then received 0.5 mg of Ativan every six (6) hours, as needed, from 2/2/2024 to 2/16/2024. The orders further indicated Resident 82 received 1 mg of Risperdal every 12 hours from 1/15/2024 to 1/30/2024.
During a review of Resident 82'a medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 1/15/2024, the record indicated informed consent for the administration of 0.5 mg of Ativan was obtained from Resident 82's FM 3.
During a review of Resident 82'a medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 2/2/2024, the record indicated informed consent for the administration of 0.5 mg of Ativan was obtained from Resident 82's FM 3.
During a review of Resident 82'a medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 1/15/2024, the record indicated informed consent for the administration of 1 mg of Risperdal was obtained from Resident 82's FM 3.
During a review of Resident 82's current physician orders, the orders indicated Resident 82 was started on 1 mg of Risperdal twice a day on 1/31/2024. The orders further indicated Resident 82 was then started on an additional dose of 0.5 mg of Risperdal twice a day on 2/2/2024. Resident 82 was receiving a total of 1.5 mg of Risperdal twice a day.
During a review of Resident 82'a medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 1/31/2024, the record indicated informed consent for the administration of 1 mg of Risperdal was obtained from Resident 82's FM 3.
During a review of Resident 82'a medical record titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or Prolonged Use of a Device, dated 2/2/2024, the record indicated informed consent for the administration of an additional 0.5 mg of Risperdal was obtained from Resident 82's FM 3.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 3/27/2024 at 2:31 p.m., with FM 3d Resident 82's records titled, Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 1/15/2024, 1/31/2024, and 2/2/2024 was reviewed. FM 3 stated his name and phone number were indicated on the form, but stated he did not receive a call form facility staff or provide informed consent for administration of Ativan and/or Risperdal. FM 3 stated facility staff told him Resident 82 was on Risperdal and Ativan, but did not discuss side effects, how long Resident 82 would be on the medications, or that the medication was not mandatory. FM 3 stated he asked for a copy of Resident 82's medications and had to research the medications by himself.
During a review of Resident 82's Medication Administration Record (MAR), dated 1/1/2024 to 1/31/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 82 received a total of 29 doses of Risperdal and 9 doses of Ativan from 1/1/2024 to 1/31/2024.
During a review of Resident 82's MAR, dated 2/1/2024 to 2/29/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 82 received a total of 58 doses of Risperdal and 14 doses of Ativan from 2/1/2024 to 2/29/2024.
During a review of Resident 82's MAR, dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 82 received a total of 53 doses of Risperdal from 3/1/2024 to 3/27/2024.
1d.
During a review of Resident 20's admission Record, the record indicated Resident 20 was originally admitted to the facility on [DATE] and re-admitted to the facility on [DATE], with admitting diagnosis that included but were not limited to: aphasia, bi-polar disorder, schizophrenia (a disorder that affects a person's ability to think, feel, and behave clearly), and multiple sclerosis (a disease in which the immune system eats away at the protective covering of nerves causing progressive inability to move over time).
During a review of Resident 20's MDS, dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 20 had severely impaired cognitive skills for decision making.
During a review of Resident 20'a medical record titled Facility Verification: Informed Consent to Physical Restraints, Psychotherapeutic Drugs, or 'Prolonged Use of a Device', dated 3/11/2024, the record indicated informed consent was signed by Resident 20's sister and RN 2 for the administration of olanzapine oral tablet 5 milligrams at bedtime.
During a review of Resident 20's current physician orders, dated 3/12/2024, the orders indicated olanzapine (an antipsychotic medication) oral tablet 5 milligrams ([mg] a unit of measurement), was to be given by mouth at bedtime for bipolar disorder manifested by being in a calm state to sudden outbursts.
During a review of Resident 20's H&P, dated 3/13/2024, the H&P idicated Resident 20 did not have the capacity to understand and make decisions.
During a review of Resident 20's Medication Administration Record (MAR), dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 20 received a total of 16 doses of olanzapine from 3/12/2024 to 3/27/2024.
During an observation on 3/27/2024, at 10:07 a.m., Resident 20 was awake, alert, in a geri-chair (a reclining chair made for those who are bed bound or unable to hold up their own weight in a sitting position), unable to verbalize and unable to move.
During an interview on 3/27/2024, at 11:24 a.m., with Representative Payee (RP) 1, RP 1 stated he had never received a phone call from RN 2, Nurse Practitioner (NP) 1, or any other staff from the facility regarding Resident 20's psychiatric medication and had never heard of the medication olanzapine or Zyprexa. RP 1 further stated he is not Resident 20's responsible party, but his court ordered payee who only paid his bills. RP 1 stated Resident 20 did not have a sister, he only had brothers.
During an attempted interview on 3/27/2024, at 11:40 a.m., RN 2's phone rang five times. State Agency (SA) left a voicemail for RN 2 (was not on duty) with request for call back regarding the informed consent for Resident 20.
During an attempted interview on 3/27/2024, at 3:43 p.m., RN 2's phone rang twice before it went to voicemail.
During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 10:32 a.m., with MD 1, MD 1 stated that nursing staff were the primary staff responsible for obtaining informed consent for psychotropic medications from the resident and/or responsible party. MD 1 stated that if the nurses are unable to reach the responsible party by phone to obtain the informed consent, then the staff will notify him, and he will attempt to call the responsible party himself. MD 1 stated it was rare that he obtained informed consent from the resident or their responsible party.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled Informed Consent, dated 9/2018, the P&P indicated:
a. The attending physician, PA [Physician Assistant], or NP [Nurse Practitioner] must obtain the informed consent of the resident or their responsible party for purposes of prescribing, ordering or increasing an order for a medication
b. Seek the consent of the resident's responsible party, if the resident is not competent to make treatment decisions as designated in the medical record. The physician, PA, or NP shall make reasonable attempts .to notify the interested family member .of the prescription order of increase of an order for psychotherapeutic [psychotropic] medication
c. The facility shall verify the informed consent has been obtained prior to the administration of psychotherapeutic medication
d. It is the responsibility of the physician, PA or NP who orders the psychotherapeutic medication to obtain the resident or the resident's responsible party's informed consent prior to initiation of therapy .the physician, PA or NP cannot delegate the responsibility to the nurse to obtain the consent
e. The information material to a decision concerning the administration of a psychotherapeutic drug shall include:
1. The reason for the treatment and the nature and seriousness of the resident's illness
2. The probable degree and duration .of improvement or remission, expected with or without such treatment
3. The nature, degree, duration and probability of the side effects and significant risks
4. The reasonable alternative treatments and risks, and why this particular treatment is recommended
5. That the resident has the right to accept or refuse the proposed treatment
2. During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 1:56 p.m., with the facility Administrator (ADM), the ADM stated he had been the ADM since 2/2024, and stated MD 1 was already serving as the Medical Director when he assumed the role. The ADM stated MD 1 had not reported any issues to him related to the findings identified by the survey team. The ADM stated MD 1, in the role of Medical Director, was responsible for overseeing the other physicians and advanced practice providers (APP, a health care provider who is not a physician but who performs medical activities typically performed by a physician, most commonly nurse practitioners or physician assistants). The ADM stated MD 1 was also responsible for serving on various facility committees to ensure staff were compliant with state and federal requirements and regulations to promote better health outcomes for the facility residents.
During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 3:08 p.m., with the facility ADM, the ADM stated MD 1, in the role of Medical Director, was supposed to oversee the facility's physicians and APPs. The ADM stated there was no current system in place for monitoring or checking MD 1's performance as a primary physician for facility residents. The ADM stated there were no documented records indicating the facility's physicians and APPs were educated on the facility's current policies and procedures or being monitored for implementation of the facility's current policies and procedures.
During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 3:32 p.m., with MD 1, MD 1 stated, I don't run the staff when asked about how he ensured facility staff, including other physicians and APPs were implementing facilities policies and procedures for patient care. MD 1 stated the facility Administrator (ADM) and the Director of Nursing (DON) were responsible for overseeing facility staff and ensuring that facility policies and procedures were being implemented. MD 1 stated he did not oversee other physicians and APPs in the facility because they're independent and he was not required to oversee the care they were providing to facility residents. MD 1 stated he did not collaborate with other physicians or APPs, including MD 2 (contracted facility psychiatrist). MD 1 also stated he did not supervise the nurse practitioners (NP) because they were supervised by their overseeing physician. MD 1 stated these practitioners were licensed by their respective boards (Medical Board of California and California Board of Registered Nursing) and were responsible for their own practice.
During a review of facility document titled Resident Listing Report, dated 3/29/2024, the document indicated that in addition to serving as the Medical Director, MD 1 was also serving as the primary physician for 46 residents in the facility, including four residents identified as having concerns related to psychotropic medications and informed consents (Resident 200, Resident 40, and Resident 82, and Resident 13).
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled Medical Director, dated 9/2016, the P&P indicated it was the Medical Director's responsibilities included:
a. Implementation of resident care policies.
b. Coordination of medical care.
c. Assuring that medical care supports resident's health care needs, is consistent with current standards of practice, and helps the facility meet regulatory requirements.
d. Reviewing and evaluating aspects of physician care and practitioner's services.
e. Guiding physicians regarding specific expectations of their performance.
3. During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 1:56 p.m., with the facility ADM, the ADM stated he had been the facility ADM since 2/2024, and stated MD 1 was already serving as the medical director prior to his assumption of the ADM role. The ADM stated he was not made aware by MD 1 of any systemic facility issues when he assumed the role. The ADM further stated he was unaware of any concerns identified by the survey team related to psychotropic medications and informed consents. The ADM stated he was unsure of who oversaw MD 1 in his role as the Medical Director or as a primary physician, and stated it would likely be his responsibility as the ADM. The ADM stated he was not aware of any policies related to the governance of the facilities physicians or advance practice providers (APP, a health care provider who is not a physician but who performs medical activities typically performed by a physician, most commonly nurse practitioners or physician assistants).
During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 3:08 p.m., with the facility ADM, the ADM stated MD 1, in the role of Medical Director, was supposed to oversee the facility's physicians and APPs. The ADM stated there was no current system in place for monitoring or checking MD 1's performance as a primary physician for facility residents. The ADM stated there were no documented records indicating the facility's physicians and APPs were educated on the facility's current policies and procedures or being monitored for implementation of the facility's current policies and procedures.
During a review of facility document titled Resident Listing Report, dated 3/29/2024, the document indicated that in addition to serving as the Medical Director, MD 1 was also serving as the primary physician for 46 residents in the facility, including four residents identified as having concerns related to psychotropic medications and informed consents (Resident 200, Resident 40, and Resident 82, and Resident 13).
During a review of the facility document titled Administrator Job Description, undated, the document indicated the primary purpose of the facility ADM was to direct the day-to-day functions of the facility in accordance with current federal, state and local guidelines and regulations that govern nursing facilities. The document further indicated that general duties and responsibilities of the ADM included, but were not limited to:
a. Interpret the facility's policies· and procedures to employees .as necessary.
b. Monitor that all employees .follow the facility's established policies and procedures.
c. Review competence of work force and make necessary adjustments/corrections as required.
d. Counsel/Discipline personnel as necessary.
CONCERN
(E)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Medication Errors
(Tag F0758)
Could have caused harm · This affected multiple residents
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure staff initiated the administration of psychotherapeutic (als...
Read full inspector narrative →
**NOTE- TERMS IN BRACKETS HAVE BEEN EDITED TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIALITY** Based on interview and record review, the facility failed to ensure staff initiated the administration of psychotherapeutic (also called psychotropics, medications that affect the mind, emotions, and behavior) for eight of 17 sampled residents (Residents 75, 82, 200, 94, 40, 3, 13, and 60) without behavioral justification to warrant the necessity of the medications.
This deficient practice placed Residents 75, 82, 200, 94, 40, 3, 13, and 60 at risk for avoidable harm from unwanted adverse effects (a harmful and undesired effect resulting from a medication or intervention) related to psychotherapeutic medication use.
Findings
1. During a review of Resident 75's admission Record, the record indicated Resident 75 was admitted to the facility on [DATE] with admitting diagnoses that included transient cerebral ischemic attack (a brief blockage of blood flow to the brain). The admission record further indicated a new diagnosis of bipolar disorder (a mental illness that causes unusual shifts in a person's mood, energy, activity levels, and concentration) that started on 3/8/2024.
During a review of Resident 75's record titled, Social Services Assessment, dated 2/7/2024, the record indicated Resident 75 did not have history of mental illness, was not taking psychotropic medications, and did not have any mood or behavior concerns.
During a review of Resident 75's History and Physical (H&P), dated 2/8/2024, the H&P indicated Resident 75 could make his needs known but could not make medical decisions.
During a review of Resident 75's Minimum Data Set (MDS, a standardized resident assessment and care-screening tool), dated 2/10/2024, the MDS indicated Resident 75 had moderately impaired cognitive (problems with a person's ability to think, learn, remember, use judgement, and make decisions) skills for daily decision making. The MDS indicated Resident 75 did not have any evidence of hallucinations (seeing or hearing things that are not real), delusions (false beliefs), or any physical or verbal behaviors directed towards others. The MDS did not indicate Resident 75 had a diagnosis of bipolar disorder.
During an interview on 3/27/2024 at 1:53 p.m., with Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) 3, CNA 3 stated she was very familiar with Resident 75. CNA 3 stated Resident 75 tried to bite staff member once or twice in the last three weeks and that he had not had any other behaviors since. CNA 3 stated that when she alerts licensed nursing staff about resident behaviors, the licensed staff assess the residents and she (CNA 3) observes the licensed staff give medication. CNA 3 stated she did not recall observing licensed staff implement any other interventions.
During an interview on 3/27/2024 at 2:46 p.m., with Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) 2, LVN 2 stated that any time a resident exhibited a new behavior, licensed nursing staff were supposed to assess the resident, notify the doctor, and document the information on a specific form used for changes of a resident's condition. LVN 2 further stated a care plan related to the new behavior was supposed to be initiated with pharmacologic (using, involving, or having to do with a drug or drugs) and non-pharmacological interventions to address the behavior. LVN 2 stated staff would document the resident's behaviors and all interventions implemented on the resident's behavior monitoring flowsheet.
During a review of Resident 75's current physician orders, the orders indicated Resident 75 was started on one (1) milligram (mg, a unit of dose measurement for medications) of Risperdal (brand name for risperidone, an antipsychotic medication used to treat certain mental and mood disorders) twice a day for bipolar disorder m/b [manifested by] aggressive agitative behavior AEB [as evidenced by] striking out behavior towards staff unprovoked. The orders indicated Risperdal was started on 3/8/2024.
During a review of Resident 75's progress note, dated 3/8/2024, the progress note indicated Resident [75] alert, able to convey needs, not in any forms of distress, seen by [Nurse Pracitioner (NP) 1] .with noted new orders and carried out. [Resident 75] started on Risperdal .to give 1 mg twice a day by mouth for management of Bipolar Disorder m/b [manifested by] aggressive agitative behavior AEB [as evidenced by] striking out behavior towards staff unprovoked.
During a review of Resident 75's progress note, dated 3/8/2024, the progress note indicated informed consent obtained from [resident's family member (FM 2)].
During a review of Resident 75's care plan for Risperdal administration, dated 3/8/2024, the care plan indicated that potential adverse effects associated with administration of Risperdal included: agitation, inability to sleep, anxiety, nausea, vomiting, akathisia (muscle quivering, restlessness, and inability to sit still), lightheadedness, dyspepsia (upper abdominal discomfort, described as burning sensation, bloating or gassiness), uncontrollable involuntary movements, low blood pressure when changing positions, and stiffness of the muscles.
During a review of Resident 75's Medication Administration Record (MAR), dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 75 received a total of 38 doses of Risperdal from 3/8/2024 to 3/27/2024.
During an interview on 3/28/2024 at 9:08 a.m., with FM 2, FM 2 stated she did not receive a phone call on 3/8/2024 related to the initiation of or to provide informed consent for administration of Risperdal. FM 2 stated she received a call from facility staff on 3/12/2024 and stated, They only told me he was being aggressive with staff. FM 2 stated the facility staff did not tell her about Resident 75's specific behaviors or that Resident 75 had been started on Risperdal. FM 2 stated Resident 75 had never been previously diagnosed with or treated for bipolar disorder.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 3/28/2024 at 2:45 p.m., with the Director of Nursing (DON), the DON stated that if Resident 75 exhibited any behaviors, they would be documented in Resident 75's behavioral monitoring flowsheets, progress notes, and change of condition forms. The DON reviewed Resident 75's electronic medical record (EMR) and stated there was no documentation of Resident 75 striking out at staff prior to the initiation of Risperdal for striking out behavior towards staff. The DON further stated there was only one documented episode of Resident 75 biting staff prior to the initiation of Risperdal on 3/8/2024. The DON stated there were no behaviors documented as exhibited on 3/8/2024 when NP 1 assessed Resident 75 and ordered the Risperdal, and stated the diagnosis of bipolar disorder was new. The DON stated there were also no care plans in place for Resident 75's alleged behavior of striking out at staff, or for his behavior of biting staff, prior to initiation of Risperdal. The DON stated there should have been a care plan with non-pharmacologic interventions. The DON stated that based on the documentation in Resident 75's record there was no pattern of behaviors.
2. During a review of Resident 82's admission Record, the record indicated Resident 82 was admitted to the facility on [DATE] with admitting diagnoses that included anxiety disorder (intense, excessive, and persistent worry and fear about everyday situations), unspecified psychosis (a mental disorder characterized by a disconnection from reality) not due to a substance or known physiological condition, metabolic encephalopathy, and aphasia (language disorder that affects a person's ability to communicate).
During a review of Resident 82's H&P, dated 1/15/2024, the H&P indicated Resident 82 did not have the capacity to understand make decisions.
During a review of Resident 82's MDS, dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 82 had moderately impaired cognitive skills for daily decision making.
During a review of Resident 82's medical record titled, Change of Condition SBAR - Behavior Change COC, dated 1/15/2024, the record indicated Resident 82 was restless and verbalized people giving him commands that he did not want to follow. The record indicated Resident 82 stated he was being instructed to move from side to side and things like that. The record indicated that Medical Doctor 1 (MD) 1 (Resident 82's primary physician) and NP 1 were both notified, and orders were received for Ativan (brand name for lorazepam; a sedative that acts on the brain and nerves to produce a calming effect) 0.5 mg every six (6) hours as needed for anxiety and risperidone (generic name for Risperdal) 1 mg every 12 hours for hallucinations.
During a review of Resident 82's discontinued and completed medication orders, the orders indicated Resident 82 received 0.5 mg of Ativan every six (6) hours, as needed, from 1/15/2024 to 1/30/2024. The orders also indicated Resident 82 received 1 mg of Risperdal every 12 hours from 1/15/2024 to 1/30/2024 for psychosis .m/b [manifested by] aggressive disruptive behavior.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 3/28/2024 at 12:13 p.m., with Registered Nurse (RN) 1, Resident 82's medical records titled, Change of Condition SBAR - Behavior Change COC, dated 1/15/2024, and Behavioral Monitoring Flowsheet, dated 1/1/2024 to 1/31/2024, was reviewed. RN 1 stated he completed this assessment and stated there was no mention of hallucinations in the record and stated that facility staff would likely ask a resident to move from side to side or give commands. RN 1 stated the record also indicated that talking to Resident 82 helped to alleviate the restlessness and anxiety, and stated it was a reasonable response for someone to not want to follow instructions if they were in an unfamiliar environment or were previously independent and used to taking care of themselves. RN 1 stated that aside from talking to the resident, there were other non-pharmacological interventions that could be implemented to address the behaviors. RN 1 stated these non-pharmacological interventions were supposed to be attempted prior to initiating pharmacologic interventions. RN 1 stated there were no documented non-pharmacological interventions, however Resident 82 was started on Risperdal and Ativan.
During a concurrent observation and interview, on 3/27/2024 at 1:29 p.m., with Resident 82's family member (FM 3), at Resident 82's bedside, FM 3 stated Resident 82 used to be very active and independent and did not have a history of aggressive behavior. FM 3 stated Resident 82 was likely having a hard time adjusting to a new environment. During the interview, Resident 82 was observed in bed, calm, with no apparent behavioral concerns.
During an interview on 3/27/2024 at 1:32 p.m., with CNA 5, CNA 5 stated he had not observed Resident 82 exhibiting aggressive behavior towards staff or others. CNA 5 stated it was important to ask residents about their care preferences, and stated residents might refuse care if their preferences were not respected.
During an interview, on 3/27/2024 at 2:31 p.m., with FM 3, FM 3 stated facility staff told him Resident 82 was on Risperdal and Ativan, but did not discuss their side effects, how long Resident 82 would be on the medications, or that the medication was not mandatory. FM 3 stated he asked for a copy of Resident 82's medications and had to research the medications by himself. FM 3 stated he then asked Medical Doctor (MD) 1 (Resident 82's primary physician) if the Risperdal and Ativan dose could be reduced, stating Resident 82 was not taking those medications previously and was now drowsy and did not want to eat. FM 3 stated he was told by facility staff that the Risperdal dose would be decreased, but the Risperdal dose was increased instead. FM 3 stated facility staff did not ask him about Resident 82's preferences for care. FM 3 stated, [Resident 82] is not like that, and stated Resident 82 might refuse care because he did not know the staff or was in an unfamiliar environment.
During a review of Resident 82's MAR, dated 1/1/2024 to 1/31/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 82 received a total of 29 doses of Risperdal and 9 doses of Ativan from 1/1/2024 to 1/31/2024.
During a review of Resident 82's psychiatry consult record, dated 2/2/2024, the record indicated Resident 82 demonstrated stability, absence of serious mental status abnormalities, and Resident 82's denial of suicidal/self-injurious thoughts, assaultive/homicidal intentions, hallucinations, or delusions was noted. The record also indicated Staff notes indicate stability and tolerance of the current medication regimen and indicated Resident 82 was not on Ativan. The record further indicated [Resident 82] expressed satisfaction with the current medication dosage, indicating no need for changes.
During a review of Resident 82's progress note, dated 2/2/2024, the progress note indicated Received new order from MD to extend Ativan .0.5 MG .every 6 hours as needed for Anxiety for 14 Days .manifested by hallucinations verbalizing that people are giving him instructions and he does not like it. Noted and carried out. The progress note did not indicate the MD who ordered the medication. There were no other progress notes prior to 2/2/2024 indicating the presence or reporting of hallucinations or anxiety.
During a review of Resident 82's record titled, Behavioral Monitoring Flowsheet, dated 2/1/2024 to 2/29/2024, there was no documentation of hallucinations or anxiety.
During a review of Resident 82's records titled, Skilled Daily Charting, dated 1/15/2024 to 2/2/2024, the record indicated no documentation of hallucinations, rejection of care, or other symptoms, under the section titled Behaviors.
During a review of Resident 82's discontinued and completed medication orders, the orders indicated Resident 82 was started on 0.5 mg of Ativan every six (6) hours, as needed, from 2/2/2024 to 2/16/2024.
During a review of Resident 82's MAR, dated 2/1/2024 to 2/29/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 82 received a total of 14 doses of Ativan from 2/1/2024 to 2/16/2024.
During a review of Resident 82's current physician orders, the orders indicated Resident 82 was started on 1 mg of Risperdal twice a day on 1/31/2024. The orders further indicated Resident 82 was started on an additional dose of 0.5 mg of Risperdal twice a day on 2/2/2024, for a total of 1.5 mg of Risperdal twice a day.
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 3/27/2024 at 3:07 p.m., with LVN 2, Resident 82's care plans and Electronic Medical Record (EMR) were reviewed. LVN 2 stated there were no behavior care plans for Resident 82's alleged behaviors prior to the initiation of Risperdal and Ativan. LVN 2 stated there was supposed to be a care plan initiated when Resident 82 first exhibited the behaviors, which would include non-pharmacological interventions for staff to implement. LVN 2 then reviewed Resident 82's EMR and stated that based on the available documentation, there was no documentation to justify increasing Resident 82's dose of Risperdal on 2/2/2024 from 1 mg twice a day to 1.5 mg twice a day.
During a review of Resident 82's records titled, Skilled Daily Charting, dated 1/15/2024 to 2/2/2024, the record indicated no documentation of behavioral symptoms, under the section titled Behaviors.
During a review of Resident 82's record titled, Behavioral Monitoring Flowsheet, dated 1/1/2024 to 1/31/2024, there was no documentation of any behaviors on 1/31/2024.
During a review of Resident 82's record titled, Behavioral Monitoring Flowsheet, dated 2/1/2024 to 2/29/2024, there was no documentation of any behaviors on 2/1/2024, prior to the increased dose of Risperdal ordered on 2/2/2024.
During a review of Resident 82's MAR, dated 2/1/2024 to 2/29/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 82 received a total of 58 doses of Risperdal and 14 doses of Ativan from 2/1/2024 to 2/29/2024.
During a review of Resident 82's MAR, dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 82 received a total of 53 doses of Risperdal from 3/1/2024 to 3/27/2024.
During a review of Resident 82's care plan, dated 1/28/2024 and revised on 2/3/2024, the care plan indicated that potential adverse effects associated with administration of Risperdal included: agitation, inability to sleep, anxiety, nausea, vomiting, akathisia, lightheadedness, dyspepsia, uncontrollable involuntary movements, low blood pressure when changing positions, and stiffness of the muscles.
During a review of Resident 82's care plan, dated 1/28/2024, the care plan indicated that potential adverse effects associated with administration of Ativan included: dizziness, unsteadiness, weakness, fatigue, drowsiness, confusion, depression, ataxia (loss of muscle control), sleep apnea (when you stop breathing while asleep), uncontrollable involuntary movements, dysarthria (difficulty speaking), low blood pressure, and liver complications.
3. During a review of Resident 200's admission Record, the record indicated Resident 200 was admitted on [DATE], with admitting diagnoses that included schizophrenia (a disorder affecting a person's ability to think, feel, and behave clearly) and insomnia (persistent problems falling and staying asleep).
During a review of Resident 200's progress note, dated 3/26/2024, the progress note indicated Per [Resident 200's] request, she wants Ambien for Insomnia. Order noted from [MD 1]. The progress note did not indicate any non-pharmacological interventions implemented prior to notifying MD 1 and obtaining orders for Ambien (brand name for zolpidem; a sedative, also called a hypnotic, that affects chemicals in the brain to treat insomnia), or that MD 1 had assessed or evaluated Resident 200 prior to giving the order.
During an interview on 3/28/2024 at 11:13 a.m., with CNA 6, CNA 6 stated that if a resident reported they were not sleeping well, she would report it to the charge nurse. CNA 6 stated she was providing care to Resident 200, and stated she was not monitoring Resident 200 for sleep concerns. CNA 6 stated Resident 200 did not report any sleep issues.
During a concurrent interview and record review on 3/28/2024 at 11:13 a.m., with LVN 4, Resident 200's care plan for insomnia was reviewed. LVN 4 stated that if a resident is on sleep monitoring, staff record how many hours of sleep the resident received. LVN 4 stated he was unsure where it would be documented. LVN 4 stated Resident 200 did not report any sleep issues and stated the previous nurse had not reported any sleep issues. LVN 4 reviewed Resident 200's care plan for insomnia and stated it was started on 3/27/2024, after initiation of the zolpidem tartrate. LVN 4 stated there were no care plans prior to 3/27/2024 to address Resident 200's insomnia. LVN 4 stated there were no other notes indicating Resident 200 had issues with sleeping or insomnia. LVN 4 stated there were non-pharmacological interventions to aid residents in sleeping better, and stated there was no documentation that non-pharmacological interventions were attempted prior to starting Resident 200 on zolpidem tartrate (generic name for Ambien).
During a concurrent interview and record review, on 3/28/2024 at 3:54 p.m., with the DON, the DON stated that if a resident verbalized having a hard time sleeping, staff would monitor the hours of sleep prior to starting medications. The DON stated there were also non-pharmacologic interventions to implement, prior to initiating medication. The DON reviewed Resident 200's progress notes and stated there were no progress notes indicating MD 1 saw Resident 200 since admission, or prior to ordering zolpidem tartrate. The DON also stated there was no documentation indicating MD 1 had obtained informed consent for the zolpidem tartrate.
During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 10:32 a.m., with MD 1, MD 1 stated that any medication that could alter the brain was a psychotropic, including zolpidem tartrate. MD 1 further stated facility staff usually start a resident on psychotropic medications prior to him seeing the resident. MD 1 stated that prior to initiating psychotropic medications, which included hypnotics such as zolpidem, he would want to see a pattern of behavior occurring at least 24 to 48 hours.
During a review of Resident 200's physician orders, dated 3/26/2024, the orders indicated Resident 200 was started on zolpidem tartrate 5 mg as needed for insomnia m/b [manifested by] inability to sleep. The duration for administration was 30 days, from 3/26/2024 to 4/25/2024.
During a review of Resident 200's care plan for zolpidem tartrate, dated 3/27/2024, the care plan indicated Resident 200 had a behavioral pattern of insomnia manifested by inability to sleep. The care plan indicated in compliance, medication should only be ordered as PRN [as needed] with 14 day duration, reinstatement will be done only if symptom still persist with the same 14 day duration .Consider supplements first, like melatonin, before prescribing sedative/hypnotic. The care plan further indicated that adverse effects of zolpidem included: headache, drowsiness, dizziness, .drugged feeling .and sleep disorder.
During a review of Resident 200's records titled, Behavioral Monitoring Flowsheet and MAR, dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the records indicated there was no documentation of sleep monitoring or evidence of insomnia for administration of zolpidem.
4. During a review of Resident 94's admission Record, the record indicated Resident 94 was admitted on [DATE] with admitting diagnoses that included metabolic encephalopathy, severe intellectual disabilities, bipolar disorder, and personal history of other mental and behavioral disorders.
During a review of Resident 94's H&P, dated 2/16/2024, the H&P indicated Resident 94 did not have the capacity to understand and make decisions.
During a review of Resident 94's MDS, dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 94 had severely impaired cognitive skills for daily decision making. The MDS further indicated Resident 94 did not reject evaluation by staff or care necessary to achieve his goals for health and well-being.
During a review of Resident 94's discontinued and completed physician orders, the orders indicated Resident 94 was receiving one (1) mg of Ativan every eight (8) hours as needed for anxiety m/b [manifested by] excessive physical restlessness. The medication was ordered for a duration of 14 days, from 2/29/2024 to 3/14/2024.
During a review of Resident 94's psychiatry consult, dated 3/8/2024, the record indicated NP 1 assessed Resident 94 and no signs of anxiety were present. The record further indicated Resident 94 was receiving Ativan 1 mg every eight (8) hours as needed for 14 days. The record did not indicate there was or would be an increase in the duration of Resident 94's Ativan orders.
During a review of Resident 94's active physician orders, the orders indicated a new order for 1 mg of Ativan every eight (8) hours, as needed, for anxiety m/b [manifested by] excessive physical restlessness. The medication was ordered for a duration of 30 days, from 3/15/2024 to 4/14/2024.
During a review of Resident 94's care plan for Ativan, dated 2/14/2024, the care plans indicated Resident 94 had a behavioral pattern of anxiety manifested by excessive physical restlessness, and Resident 94 was at risk for adverse side effects as results of Ativan use. The care plan indicated adverse effects included: sedation, confusion, disorientation, depression, ataxia, respiratory depression (when you breathe too slowly or too shallowly), and low blood pressure. Non-pharmacological interventions on the care plan had not been updated since 2/14/2024. The care plan further indicated in compliance, medication should only be ordered as PRN [as needed] with 14 day duration, reinstatement will be done only if symptom still persist with supporting documentation from the psychiatrist.
During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 12:32 p.m., with the Medical Records Director (MRD), the MRD stated there were no psychiatry consults or progress notes after 3/8/2024 and prior to the new Ativan order on 3/15/2024.
During a review of Resident 94's medical record titled, Behavioral Monitoring Flowsheet and MAR, dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the records indicated that from 3/7/2024 to 3/9/2024, Resident 94 exhibited anxiety manifested by excessive physical restlessness for which staff administered 1 mg of Ativan twice on 3/7/2024, three times on 3/8/2024, and twice on 3/9/2024. The records did not indicate any staff implementation of non-pharmacological interventions to address the behaviors prior to administration of Ativan.
During a review of Resident 94's medical record titled, Behavioral Monitoring Flowsheet and MAR, dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the record indicated that from 3/10/2024 to 3/14/2024, Resident 94 did not exhibit any behaviors of anxiety manifested by excessive physical restlessness. The records indicated that facility staff administered Ativan once on 3/10/2024, twice on 3/13/2024, and once on 3/14/2024, despite no documented behaviors. The records did not indicate any staff implementation of non-pharmacological interventions prior to or in addition to administration of Ativan.
During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 2:30 p.m., with the DON, the DON stated he did not see any progress notes or documentation indicating which Resident 94's provider was contacted and ordered the 1 mg of Ativan every eight (8) hours as needed for 30 days on 3/15/2024. The DON stated there was supposed to be documentation from the ordering provider indicating the justification for extending the medication beyond 14 days.
5. During a review of Resident 40's admission Record, the record indicated Resident 40 was originally admitted to the facility on [DATE] and was most recently readmitted to the facility on [DATE]. The record indicated Resident 40's admitting diagnoses included dysarthria (difficulty speaking), hemiplegia (inability to move one side of the body). The record also indicated a new diagnosis of bipolar disorder starting on 3/12/2024.
During a review of Resident 40's H&P, dated 3/14/2024, the H&P indicated Resident 40 did not have the capacity to understand and make decisions.
During a review of Resident 40's MDS, dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 40 had severely impaired cognition. The MDS did not indicate a diagnosis of bipolar disorder or any other psychotic disorder.
During a review of Resident 40's MDS, dated [DATE], the MDS indicated Resident 40 had severely impaired cognitive skills for daily decision making. The MDS did not indicate a diagnosis of bipolar disorder or any other psychotic disorder.
During a review of Resident 40's psychiatric consults, dated 4/28/2023, 5/17/2023, 10/27/2023, and 12/15/2023, the records indicated Resident 40 was not receiving Risperdal and did not include any mention of a diagnosis of bipolar disorder.
During a review of Resident 40's psychiatric consult, dated 2/2/2024, the record indicated NP 1 assessed Resident 40, and indicated Resident 40 had a history of vascular dementia without behavioral disturbance and had been compliant with care and listening to staff. The record indicated there wasn't a clinical need for medication adjustment and indicated Resident 40 was not receiving Risperdal. The record did not include any mention of a diagnosis of bipolar disorder.
During an interview on 3/21/2024 at 2:49 p.m., with NP 1, NP 1 stated that examples of behaviors indicating a potential bipolar diagnosis included auditory hallucinations and disorganized thought processes. NP 1 stated a diagnosis was not only based on the presenting behaviors, and a new diagnosis required a thorough assessment process. NP 1 stated they take the resident's medical history into consideration and rule out other potential causes of the behavior prior to identifying a new diagnosis of bipolar disorder. NP 1 stated she did not recall giving an order for Risperdal or obtaining informed consent to initiate Risperdal for Resident 40.
During an interview on 3/21/2024 at 3:37 p.m., with the DON and the Quality Assurance Nurse (QAN), the QAN stated that on 3/12/2024 she reported to NP 1 that Resident 40 had been readmitted from the hospital, and asked NP 1 if she wanted to continue Resident 40's previous orders, which did not include Risperdal. The QAN stated she did not communicate Resident 40's current behaviors or condition to NP 1 when phone orders were received from NP 1 for Risperdal. The DON and QAN stated NP 1 did not come in on 3/12/2024 to see Resident 40 prior to initiating Risperdal, and stated there was no documentation of a visit on 3/12/2024 by NP 1.
During a review of Resident 40's progress note, dated 3/12/2024, the progress noted indicated noted new order and carried out from [NP 1] to start [Resident 40] on Risperdal 0.5 mg 1 tablet by mouth twice a day for management of Bipolar Disorder .manifested by physically aggressive with striking out behavior towards staff for no apparent reason.
During a review of Resident 40's record titled Behavioral Monitoring Flowsheet, dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the record indicated Resident 40 was not being monitored for bipolar disorder or physical aggression and striking out at staff prior to 3/12/2024 when Risperdal was initiated. The record further indicated Resident 40 displayed the behaviors on 3/18/2024 during the 3:00 p.m. to 11:00 p.m. shift and non-pharmacological interventions were not attempted to address or alleviate the behaviors.
During a review of Resident 40's progress note, dated 3/18/2024, the progress note indicated [MD 1] gave verbal orders for Ativan 1 mg .Risperdal increased to 1 mg PO [by mouth] BID [twice a day] .Orders noted and carried out.
During a review of Resident 40's physician orders, dated 3/18/2024, the orders indicated Resident 40's Risperdal was increased from 0.5 mg twice a day to one (1) mg twice a day. The orders further indicated Resident 40 was also started on Ativan one (1) mg for anxiety manifested by refusal of care.
During an interview on 3/21/2024 at 3:52 p.m., with MD 1, MD 1 stated Resident 40 had dementia and was being treated for a urinary tract infection (UTI, an illness in any part of the urinary tract, the system of organs that makes urine). MD 1 stated Resident 40's behavior of aggression and striking out at staff was a new behavior. MD 1 further stated Resident 40 had a history of stroke with dementia, which more likely explained the change in behavior. MD 1 stated he did not observe the behaviors directly and ordered the increase in Resident 40's Risperdal from 0.5 mg to one (1) mg based on report received from facility staff. MD 1 stated Resident 40 was redirectable when he did his own personal assessment of the resident. MD 1 stated that residents with advanced dementia on psychotropics, such as Risperdal or Ativan, have increased mortality risk (likelihood of death), and stated that long term use of psychotropic medications can cause unwanted adverse effects.
During a review of Resident 40's care plan for Risperdal administration, dated 3/12/2024, the care plan indicated Resident 40 was at risk for adverse side effects related to use of Risperdal.
During a review of Resident 40's MAR, dated 3/1/2024 to 3/31/2024, the MAR indicated Resident 40 received a total of 11 doses of Risperdal from 3/12/2024 to 3/18/2024, and was hospitalized on [DATE].
6. During a review of Resident 3's admission Record, the record indicated the facility
CONCERN
(E)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Food Safety
(Tag F0812)
Could have caused harm · This affected multiple residents
Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to date food items for 89 out of 95 residents.
This deficient practice had the potential to cause food borne illnesses (food po...
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Based on observation, interview, and record review, the facility failed to date food items for 89 out of 95 residents.
This deficient practice had the potential to cause food borne illnesses (food poisoning, any illness resulting from the food spoilage of contaminated food, pathogenic bacteria, viruses, or parasites that contaminate food, as well as toxins) for 89 out of the 95 residents receiving food items from the facility.
Findings:
During an observation on 3/18/2024, at 8:22 a.m., in Refrigerator 1, pork sausage was dated 3/4 (March 4 th), with no year and no expiration date indicated. Freezer 2 had a box of beef and vegetable enchiladas dated 4/30 (April 30th), with no year indicated.
During a concurrent observation and interview on 3/18/2024, at 8:45 a.m., of the facility's freezer, the freezer 5 had 15 single unit popsicles and ice cream that were undated, two of the wrapped popsicles and ice cream were stuck together and the plastic wrap was sticky.
During an interview on 3/18/2024, at 9:09 a.m., with the Dietary Manager (DM), the DM stated he did not see or find any dates on the single unit popsicles and ice cream and did not know when the items expired.
During an interview on 3/21/2024, at 8:22 a.m., with the DM, the DM stated all food items should be dated so staff knew when to discard items to prevent giving residents expired food. The DM stated when food arrived at the facility, he (DM) and the kitchen staff should have dated the items right away.
During a review of the facility's policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Storage of Food and Supplies, undated, the P&P indicated the purpose of the policy was to store food properly and safely, and all food will be dated with the month, day, and year.
CONCERN
(F)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Administration
(Tag F0835)
Could have caused harm · This affected most or all residents
Based on interview and record review, the Administrator failed to demonstrate or provide evidence of sufficient oversight over the activities of the facility's Medical Doctor (MD 1), who also served a...
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Based on interview and record review, the Administrator failed to demonstrate or provide evidence of sufficient oversight over the activities of the facility's Medical Doctor (MD 1), who also served as the facility's Medical Director.
This deficient practice had the potential to affect all 90 facility residents as the Medical Director was responsible for providing adequate oversight to ensure care and services provided for the 90 in-house residents in the facility met professional standards of quality.
Cross Reference: F-tag F658, F552, F758, and F841
Findings:
During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 1:56 p.m., with the Administrator (ADM), the ADM stated he had been the facility ADM since 2/2024 and stated Medical Doctor (MD) 1 was already serving as the medical director prior to his assumption of the ADM role. The ADM stated he was not made aware by MD 1 of any systemic facility issues when he assumed the role. The ADM further stated he was unaware of any concerns related to psychotropic medications (medications that affect the mind, emotions, and behavior) and informed consents. The ADM stated he was unsure of who oversaw MD 1 in his role as the Medical Director or as a primary physician, and stated it would likely be his responsibility as the ADM. The ADM stated he was not aware of any policies related to the governance of the facility's physicians or advance practice providers (APP, a health care provider who is not a physician but who performs medical activities typically performed by a physician, most commonly nurse practitioners or physician assistants).
During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 3:08 p.m., with the facility ADM, the ADM stated MD 1, in the role of Medical Director, was supposed to oversee the facility's physicians and APPs. The ADM stated there was no current system in place for monitoring or checking MD 1's performance as a primary physician for facility residents. The ADM stated there were no documented records indicating the facility's physicians and APPs were educated on the facility's current policies and procedures or being monitored for implementation of the facility's current policies and procedures.
During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 3:32 p.m., with MD 1, MD 1 stated, I don't run the staff when asked about how he ensured facility staff, including other physicians and APPs were implementing facilities policies and procedures for patient care. MD 1 stated the facility Administrator (ADM) and the Director of Nursing (DON) were responsible for overseeing facility staff and ensuring that facility policies and procedures were being implemented. MD 1 stated he did not oversee other physicians and APPs in the facility because they're independent and he was not required to oversee the care they were providing to facility residents. MD 1 stated he did not collaborate with other physicians or APPs, including MD 2 (contracted facility psychiatrist). MD 1 also stated he did not supervise the nurse practitioners (NP) because they were supervised by their overseeing physician. MD 1 stated these practitioners were licensed by their respective boards (Medical Board of California and California Board of Registered Nursing) and were responsible for their own practice.
During a review of facility document titled, Resident Listing Report, dated 3/29/2024, the document indicated that in addition to serving as the Medical Director, MD 1 was also serving as the primary physician for 46 residents in the facility, including four residents identified as having concerns related to psychotropic medications and informed consents.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Medical Director, dated 9/2016, the P&P indicated it was the Medical Director's responsibilities included:
a. Implementation of resident care policies.
b. Coordination of medical care.
c. Assuring that medical care supports resident's health care needs, is consistent with current sta ndards of practice, and helps the facility meet regulatory requirements.
d. Reviewing and evaluating aspects of physician care and practitioner's services.
e. Guiding physicians regarding specific expectations of their performance.
During a review of the facility document titled, Administrator Job Description, undated, the document indicated the primary purpose of the facility ADM was to direct the day-to-day functions of the facility in accordance with current federal, state and local guidelines and regulations that govern nursing facilities. The document further indicated that general duties and responsibilities of the ADM included, but were not limited to:
1. Interpret the facility's policies· and procedures to employees .as necessary.
2. Monitor that all employees .follow the facility's established policies and procedures.
3. Review competence of work force and make necessary adjustments/corrections as required.
4. Counsel/Discipline personnel as necessary.
CONCERN
(F)
Potential for Harm - no one hurt, but risky conditions existed
Deficiency F0841
(Tag F0841)
Could have caused harm · This affected most or all residents
Based on interview and record review, Medical Doctor (MD) 1, who also served as the facility's Medical Director, failed to follow the facility's policies and procedure outlining the responsibilities o...
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Based on interview and record review, Medical Doctor (MD) 1, who also served as the facility's Medical Director, failed to follow the facility's policies and procedure outlining the responsibilities of the Medical Director.
This deficient practice had the potential to affect all 90 facility residents due to a lack of facility staff oversight, and the potential for unidentified resident care concerns.
Cross Reference: F-tag F658, F552, F758, and F835
Findings:
During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 1:56 p.m., with the facility Administrator (ADM), the ADM stated he had been the ADM since 2/2024, and stated MD 1 was already serving as the Medical Director when he assumed the role. The ADM stated MD 1 had not reported any issues to him related to the findings identified by the survey team. The ADM stated MD 1, in the role of Medical Director, was responsible for overseeing the other physicians and advanced practice providers (APP, a health care provider who is not a physician but who performs medical activities typically performed by a physician, most commonly nurse practitioners or physician assistants). The ADM stated MD 1 was also responsible for serving on various facility committees to ensure staff were compliant with state and federal requirements and regulations to promote better health outcomes for the facility residents.
During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 3:08 p.m., with the facility ADM, the ADM stated MD 1, in the role of Medical Director, was supposed to oversee the facility's physicians and APPs. The ADM stated there was no current system in place for monitoring or checking MD 1's performance as a primary physician for facility residents. The ADM stated there were no documented records indicating the facility's physicians and APPs were educated on the facility's current policies and procedures or being monitored for implementation of the facility's current policies and procedures.
During an interview on 3/29/2024 at 3:32 p.m., with MD 1, MD 1 stated, I don't run the staff when asked about how he ensured facility staff, including other physicians and APPs were implementing facilities policies and procedures for patient care. MD 1 stated the facility Administrator (ADM) and the Director of Nursing (DON) were responsible for overseeing facility staff and ensuring that facility policies and procedures were being implemented. MD 1 stated he did not oversee other physicians and APPs in the facility because they're independent and he was not required to oversee the care they were providing to facility residents. MD 1 stated he did not collaborate with other physicians or APPs, including MD 2 (contracted facility psychiatrist). MD 1 also stated he did not supervise the nurse practitioners (NP) because they were supervised by their overseeing physician. MD 1 stated these practitioners were licensed by their respective boards (Medical Board of California and California Board of Registered Nursing) and were responsible for their own practice.
During a review of facility document titled, Resident Listing Report, dated 3/29/2024, the document indicated that in addition to serving as the Medical Director, MD 1 was also serving as the primary physician for 46 residents in the facility, including four residents identified as having concerns related to psychotropic medications (medications that affect the mind, emotions, and behavior) and informed consent.
During a review of the facility policy and procedure (P&P) titled, Medical Director, dated 9/2016, the P&P indicated it was the Medical Director's responsibilities included:
a. Implementation of resident care policies.
b. Coordination of medical care.
c. Assuring that medical care supports resident's health care needs, is consistent with current standards of practice, and helps the facility meet regulatory requirements.
d. Reviewing and evaluating aspects of physician care and practitioner's services.
e. Guiding physicians regarding specific expectations of their performance.